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Mock Test – Commerce

  1. Meaning of unpaid seller is
    1. The person who has not paid the price
    2. The person who has sold the goods and received the price
    3. The person who has sold the goods and not yet received the price
    4. The person who has not sold the goods
  2. SWACHH BHARAT ABHIYAN is an example of
    1. Sustainable marketing
    2. Social marketing
    3. Service marketing
    4. Relationship marketing
  3.  Which type of studies would be most appropriate to use in order to measure changed opinions of consumers repeatedly?
    1. Focus group studies
    2. Shadowing studies
    3. Longitudinal studies
    4. Experimental studies
  4.  Which type of retailers involve in comparatively low prices as a major selling point combined with the reduced costs of doing business?
    1. Convenience stores
    2. Discount retailers
    3. Limited line retailers
    4. Category killers stores
  5.  Tele marketing is a part of
    1. Viral marketing
    2. Social marketing
    3. Direct marketing
    4. Relationship marketing
  6.  After concept testing a firm would engage in which of the following stage in developing and marketing a new product?
    1. Test marketing
    2. Marketing strategy development
    3. Business analysis
    4. Product development
  7.  A market needs to be aware of the criteria by which effectiveness of their segmentation procedures can be assessed. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for evaluating the resulting market segments?
    1. Perishability
    2. Size of the resulting segment
    3. Measurability
    4. Accessibility
  8.  “Skimming” in e-banking refers to
    1. Identifying fraudsters copying vital information from credit cards
    2. Multiple transactions by one credit card
    3. Conversion of a debit card into credit card
    4. Excessive charge for online service
  9.  Belated return u/s 139(4) can be filled at any time
    1. Before the expiry of relevant assessment year
    2. Before the expiry of one year from relevant assessment year
    3. Before the expiry of relevant assessment year or before the assessment is complete, whichever is earlier
    4. Before the expiry of one year from the end of the relevant assessment year or before the assessment year, whichever is earlier
  10.  Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person is carrying on business whose gross turnover exceeds
    1. Rs.60 Lakhs
    2. Rs.1 Crore
    3. Rs.40 Lakhs
    4. Rs.2 Crore
  11.  Mr. X is entitled to transport allowance of Rs.1,800 p.m. for commuting from his residence to office and back and he spends Rs.1,400 p.m. The exemption shall be allowed of
    1. Rs.1,800
    2. Rs.1,400
    3. Rs.1,600
    4. Nil
  12.  Beliefs, attitudes, traditions and expectations which are shared by group members is called
    1. Group norms
    2. Group communication
    3. Group cohesiveness
    4. Group structure
  13.  Which of the following method of training is NOT a part of the off-the job training method?
    1. Sensitivity training
    2. Transitional analysis
    3. Apprenticeship
    4. Conference method
  14.  In a moderately skewed distribution, which of following equation indicates the relationship among median and mode?
    1. Mean = 2 Mode – 3 Median
    2. Mode =3 Median -2 Mode
    3. Median =3 Mean -2 Mean
    4. Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median
  15.  If on a average, 2 customers arrive at shopping mall per minute, what is the probability that in a given minute, exactly 3 customers will arrive?(e-2=0.1353)
    1.0.1804
    2.0.3532
    3.0.2352
    4.0.1404
  16.  Goodness of fit of a distribution is tested by
    1. T test
    2. F-test
    3. Chi-square test
    4. Z-Test
  17.  In a survey people are choose from class friends or neighbor’s for the purpose of knowing their preference for a certain brand of soft drinks
    1. Convenience sampling
    2 Judgment sampling
    3 Cluster sampling
    4 Stratified sampling
  18.  The following information is available for Ravi corporation
    EPS- Rs.4
    ROI-18%
    Rate of return required by shareholders – 15%
    What will the price per share as per Walter if the payout ratio is 40%?
    1.29.87
    2.29.33
    3.28.80
    4.30.63
  19.  Suppose that a firm has 20% debts and 80% equity in its capital structure. The cost of debts and cost of equity are assumed to be 10% and 15% respectively, What is the overall cost of capital?
    1. 11%
    2. 12%
    3. 13%
    4. 14%
  20.  A Ltd. Has a share capital of 5,000 equity of Rs,100 each having a market value of Rs.150 per share.The company wants to raise additional funds of Rs.1,20,000 and offers to the exiting shareholders the right to apply for a new share at Rs. 120 for every five share held.What would be the value of right?
    1. Rs.5
    2. Rs.6
    3. Rs.6.5
    4. Rs.5.5
  21.  Which one of the following is the most pervasive and sustaining objectives of financial decision mailing?
    1. Profit maximization
    2. Earnings maximization
    3. Value maximization
    4. Cost maximization
  22.  Political risk management comes in the ambit of which of the following financial decisions?
    1. Non- conventional capital budgeting
    2. International currency arbitrage
    3. Foreign exchange market
    4. Multinational capital budgeting
  23.  A company purchase a machinery on 01-01-2015 for a sum of Rs.60,000.The retail price index on that date was 150. What is the value of machinery according to CPP method on 31st December 2015, when the price index was 200.
    1. Rs.1,00,000
    2. Rs.90,000
    3. Rs.80,000
    4. Rs.70,000
  24.  X and Y are partners in a business sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:2.they admit Z as a new partner with 1/5 share in the profits. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of the partners.
    1. 12:8:5
    2. 12:8:6
    3. 12:7:6
    4. 12:3:7
  25.  If activity ratio of a firm is 80% and capacity ratio is 120% find out its efficiency ratio.
    1. 150%
    2. 100%
    3. 80%
    4. 66.67%
  26.  When current ratio is 2:1 and if equal increase in current assets and current liabilities would result in
    1. No change in current ratio
    2. Increase in current ratio
    3. Decrease in current ratio
    4. Current ratio will double
  27.  Which one of the following is a correct equation?
    1. Opening capital = Closing capital+ Additional capital – Drawing – Profit
    2. Opening capital = Closing capital + Drawings capital – Additional capital – Losses
    3. Opening capital = Closing capital + Drawings capital – Additional capital – Profit
    4. Opening capital = Closing capital – Drawings capital – Additional capital – Profit
  28.  In penetration pricing a business firm seeks to access deeper market penetration by keeping prices_________
    1. Higher
    2. Competitive
    3. Low
    4. Flexible
  29.  Sub-optimal allocation of resources under monopoly to cause social welfare loss is often inferred as
    1. Deadweight loss
    2. Allocation drift
    3. Monopoly loss
    4. Opportunity loss
  30.  Which of the following is the first order conditions to profit maximisation?
    1. TR – TC
    2. MR – MC
    3. MR cuts MC from below
    4. Slope of MC curve must be higher than that of MR curve
  31.  A price ceiling below the equilibrium price often leads to_______
    1. Commodity glut
    2. Tax Burden on consumer
    3. Shortage of the commodity and black marketing
    4. Export of commodity
  32.  For a decline in price, Total Revenue(TR) increases if demand is______
    1. Elastic
    2. Inelastic
    3. Unitary elastic
    4. Zero elastic
  33.  When consumers seek to be different and exclusive by demanding less of a commodity as more people consumes it. This phenomenon is known as
    1. Bandwagon effect
    2. Snob effect
    3. Substitution effect
    4. Price effect
  34.  Which of the following policy has lost its sheen consequent to implementation of the GST Laws in India?
    1. Monetary policy
    2. Fiscal policy
    3. Trade policy
    4. Exim policy
  35.  Reserve Repo rate is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India primarily to______
    1. Inject liquidity
    2. Absorb liquidity
    3. Protect bank credit
    4. Build reserve
  36.  A multinational firms is the one which_________
    1. Source supplies from multiple countries
    2. Export production to multiple countries
    3. Control and operates production facilities in multiple countries
    4. Has consular access in multiple countries
  37.  Grouping of countries committed to remove all barriers to the free flow of goods and service between themselves and also pursue independent external trade policies is called
    1. Free trade area
    2. Custom union
    3. Common market
    4. Economic union
  38.  Intellectual property rights (IPRs) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
    1. Social value
    2. Moral value
    3. Commercial value
    4. Ethical value
  39.  Uppasala model for internationalization of business operations is not valid for___
    1. Manufacturing organisations
    2. Services organisations
    3. Agribusiness enterprises
    4. Trading enterprises
  40.  Who coined the metaphor Invisible hand in the theory of moral sentiments?
    1. Milton Friedman
    2. David Ricardo
    3. Michael Porter
    4. Adam Smith
  41.  The defenders of the sustainability approach towards corporate social responsibility(CSR) point out that________
    1. All economic activity exists within a biosphere that support all life
    2. The success of business must be judged only against profitability
    3. People have a strong ethical duty to cause no harm and only a prime facie duty to prevent harm
    4. Business sole responsibility is to fulfill the economical functions they were designed to serve
    5. Customer service is most important
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2,3,4 only
    3. 1,3 only
    4. 1 only
  42.  Objective of energy management and audit invariably includes which of the following in business enterprises?
    1. Minimizing cost of energy consumption
    2. Minimizing waste in energy consumption
    3. Scaling harmful impacts of pollution on health of the natives
    4. Minimizing environmental degradation
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. 1,2 and 3 only
    2. 2,3 and 4 only
    3. 1,2 and 4 only
    4. 1,2,3,and 4 only
  43.  Which of the following aptly aims to alleviate financial stress of the borrowers at bottom of pyramid by reducing their cost of credit in new of covid-19 pandemic?
    A. A generic loan moratorium to the borrowers
    B. Two percent interest subvention on Sishu loans under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
    C. Provisioning Rs.1,500 crore for animal husbandry infrastructure fund (AHIDF) to help investment in dairying, meat processing and animal feed plants.
    D. Financial incentives to farmers producer organisations (FPOs) and micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs)
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A,B and C only
    2. A,B and D only
    3. B and C only
    4. D only
  44.  Organizational socialization is one very important aspect of orientation, the introduction of new employee to the enterprise. which of the following is/are not designed for the socialization of new managers?
    A. Acquisition of work skills and ability
    B. Adoption of appropriate role behavior
    C. Adjustment to the norm and values of the work group
    D. Filling a vacant position
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A, and B only
    2. B and D only
    3. C and D only
    4. D only
  45.  Which of the following are true of the goods and services tax (GST) introduced in India in recent times?
    A. It is a destination tax
    B. It benefits producing states more
    C. It benefit consuming states more
    D. It is a progressive taxation
    E. It is an umbrella tax to improve ease of doing business
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. B, D and E only
    2. A, C and D only
    3. A, D and E only
    4. A, C and E only
  46.  Which of the following truly describe govt. intervention in the MDME space in view of Covid-19 pandemic?
    A. Provisioning of collateral free automatic loans worth Rs.3 lakh crores
    B. Provision of 100% credit guarantee coverage to banks and NBFCs on principal and interest for loaned to NBFCs
    C. Redefined MSMEs to include both investment and turnover criteria
    D. Created a war chest of Rs.3,00,000 crores for the MSME loans employment protection
    E. Allocated Rs3,00,000 crores for MSME loan moratorium waiver
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A,B and C only
    2. B,C and D
    3. C,D and E
    4. A,C and D
  47.  The consumers price sensitivity is/are influenced by
    A. Who bears the cost
    B. What percentage of total expenditure does the product represent
    C. Who bears the cost and type of retailer from where customer purchase
    D. Consumption of product by the customer
    E. Knowledge about the product
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A,B,E only
    2. B and D only
    3. A,B,D only
    4. A,B,D,E only
  48.  Which of these are readily accepted distinguishing characteristics of the services that create unique strategic challenges?
    A. Inflexibility
    B. Perishibility
    C. Inseparability
    D. Intangibility
    E. Inscrutability
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. B,C,D only
    2. A,B,C,D only
    3. C,D,E only
    4. B and D only
  49.  Suppose a customer who purchase only two goods is making a utility-maximizing choice and then the price of one of the goods decreases. what will happen?
    A. The consumers purchasing power will increases
    B. The consumers total utility will increase
    C. The consumers money income will increase
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and C only
    2. A and B only
    3. B and C only
    4. A,B and C only
  50.  Which of the following could be problems with consumer interviews?
    A. A non-random sample
    B. The identification problem
    C. Response bias
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and B only
    2. B and C only
    3. A and C only
    4. B only
  51.  Process costing is appropriate for which of the following firms?
    A. Logistics and transportation firms
    B. Pharmaceutical and healthcare firms
    C. Tourism and hospitality firms
    D. Oil refining firms
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and C
    2. B and C
    3. A,B and C
    4. D only
  52.  In order to calculate capital adequacy ratio, the banks are required to take into consideration, which of the following risks?
    A. Credit risk
    B. Market risk
    C. Operational risk
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and C only
    2. A and B only
    3. B and C only
    4. A,B and C only
  53.  Identify on which of the three mutually reinforcing pillars Basel-III capital regulations are based?
    A. Minimum capital standards
    B. Supervisory review of capital adequacy
    C. Credit risk management
    D. Market discipline
    E. Management control
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A,B and C only
    2. A,B and D only
    3. C,D and E only
    4. A,C and D only
  54.  Which of the following are sufficient to determine shutdown point of multi commodity firms in the short-run?
    A. Variable cost of operation
    B. Marginal revenue received
    C. Average variable cost of operation
    D. Average marginal revenue received
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and B only
    2. C and D only
    3. A,B and C only
    4. B,C and D only
  55.  Survey instruments used to assess customer perception of service quality are called
    A. CETSCALE
    B. SERVQUAL
    C. SERVPREF
    D. DINESERV
    E. RSQS
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and B only
    2. B and C only
    3. A,B,C and D only
    4. B,C,D and E only
  56.  Channel conflicts can be
    A. Vertical
    B. Horizontal
    C. Diagonal
    D. Circular
    E. Triangular
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and C only
    2. B and C only
    3. A and B only
    4. A,B and C only
  57.  Which of the following retail analytic applications involve(s) the use of search techniques to gain insights into customers buying pattern?
    A. Factor analysis
    B. Regression analysis
    C. Data mining
    D. Data scraping
    E. Data cloning
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and B only
    2. B and C only
    3. A,C and D only
    4. C only
  58.  Which of the following narratives describes fisher (lrving) effect?
    A. Nominal interest rate is equal to a real interest rate plus an expected interest rate
    B. Real interest rate is equal to nominal interest rate minus expected rate of inflation
    C. Exchange rate different between two currencies is explained by interest-inflation rate differential
    D. Exchange rate differential between two currencies is explained by comparative cost advantage and purchasing power parity
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A,B and C only
    2. A and B only
    3. C and D only
    4. B, C and D only
  59.  Which of the following include problems in forecasting?
    A. Estimates becoming more reliable the further you forecast into the future
    B. Specification error
    C. Cyclical variation
    D. Stationary in data series
    E. Consistency in data series
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    1. A and B only
    2. B, C and D only
    3. B and C only
    4. A and C only
  60.  Which one of the following is/are hold(s) true to successfully practice price discrimination?
    A. The firm must be a pure monopoly
    B. The firm must possess market power
    C. It must be difficult for consumer in one market to sell to consumer in the other market
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. A and B only
    2. B and C only
    3. A and C only
    4. C only
  61.  In a monopolistically competitive market, which of the following hold true?
    A. firms are small relative to the total market
    B. no firms has any market power
    C. there is easy entry and exit in the market
    D. few firms have market power
    E. there is no easy entry and exit in the market
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. A,C and E only
    2. B and C only
    3. A, and B only
    4. A, and C only
  62.  Span of management is determined by
    (i) Manager’s training
    (ii) Manger’s personal qualities
    (iii) Subordinates training
    (iv) Trade union
    1. (ii),(iii),and(iv)
    2. (i),(ii),and(iii)
    3. (i),(iii),and(iv)
    4. (i),(ii),and(iv)
  63.  The shutdown refers to complete cessation or closing down of the business. It involves which of the following?
    (i) No buying or selling
    (ii) No manufacturing
    (iii) Shifting of business from one place to another place
    (iv) Assets to be sold or disposes off
    (v) Returning capital to owners
    1. (i),(ii),(iv),(v)
    2. (i),(ii),(iii),( iv)
    3. (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
    4. (i),(iii),(iv),(v)
  64.  Which of the following are false?
    A. partners are not bound to carry on the business of the firm to the greatest common advantage
    B. where a partner is entitled to interest on capital subscribed by him, such interest shall be payable whether or not there are profits
    C. An outgoing partners has a right to claim a share in the profit of the firm till his account is finally settled
    D. a partner may be expelled from the firm only with the consent of all other partners
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. A,B,D only
    2. A,C,D only
    3. B,D,C only
    4. C,D only
  65.  Which of the following are related to vouching of sales?
    A. Dispatch of goods
    B. Sales book
    C. Direct notes
    D. Credit notes
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. B and D only
    2. A and D only
    3. B and A only
    4. B and C only
  66.  Match the items of List I with those of List II and choose the correct code of combination
    List I List II
    a. Ad-hoc team formed to solve unusual problem  (i) Virtual organization
    b. Suitable when there are large number of small projects  (ii) Task force
    c. Status-free and hierarchy free organization  (iii) Free form organization
    d. Digital or dot com organization (iv) Matrix organization

    1. a-(iii),b-(i),c-(iv),d-(ii)
    2. a-( i),b-(ii),c-(iv),d-(iii)
    3. a-(ii),b-(iv),c-(iii),d-(i)
    4. a-(iv),b-(i),c-(ii),d-(iii)

  67. Match the items of List I with those of List II and choose the correct code of combination
    List I List II
    a. Inability to pay interest (i) Current ratio
    b. Liquidity crisis (ii) Debtor turnover ratio
    c. Inefficient collection of receivable  (iii) Interest coverage ratio
    d. Return of shareholders fund being much higher than the overall return on investment (iv) Debts-equity ratio

    1. a-(iii),b-(i),c-(ii),d-(iv)
    2. a-(iii),b-(ii),c-(i),d-(iv)
    3. a-(ii),b-(iii),c-(i),d-(iv)
    4. a-(i),b-(ii),c-(iii),d-(iv)

  68.  match List I with List II
    List I List II
    (Market Forms)  (Distinctive featured)
    A. Perfect competition  i. Price rigidity
    B. Monopoly  ii. Product improvements
    C. Monopolistic competition iii. Homogeneous products
    D. Oligopoly  iv. Price discrimination

    Chose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. a-(ii),b-(i),c-(iv),d-(iii)
    2. a-(iv),b-(iii),c-(i),d-(ii)
    3. a-(iii),b-(iv),c-(ii),d-(i)
    4. a-(i),b-(ii),c-(iii),d-(iv)

  69.  Match the cost concepts in List I and their description List II
    List I List II
    (cost concepts)  (Description)
    A. Sunk cost  i. Change in total cost for a unit change in out put
    B. Marginal cost  ii. Value of inputs owned and used in production
    C. Investment cost iii. Costs that are unaffected by firm decision
    D. Implicit cost iv. Total increase in costs resulting from decision

    Chose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
    2. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
    3. A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
    4. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

  70.  Match the item in List I with economist propounded the same from List II
    List 1  List 2
    (Theoretical foundations of global trade)  (Economist)
    A. Absolute cost advantage i. Michael Porter
    B. Factor endowment theory  ii. David Ricardo
    C. National competitive advantage iii. Hecksher and Ohlin
    D. Comparative cost advantage iv. Adam Smith

    Identify correct match from the following:1. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
    2. A- iii ,B-ii, C-i, D-iv
    3. A-i, B-iv, C- iii, D-ii
    4. A- iii, B-iv, C- ii, D-i

  71.  Match the item of List I with the item of List II and choose the correct code of combination:
    List 1 List 2
    A. Indian contract Act  i. 2002
    B. Right to information Act ii. 1872
    C. Information technology Act  iii. 2005
    D. Competition Act  iv. 2001

    1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
    2. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
    3. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
    4. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

  72.  Match the item of List I with the item of List II and suggest the correct code
    List 1 List 2
    A. Relationship i. Dealing in hundis and acceptance of deposits
    B. Merchant banking  ii. Widening the enterpreurial base and assist in a rapid rate of industrial growth
    C. Indigenous banking iii. Engaged in the business of capital issue management
    D. Development banking iv. Creating maintaining and enhancing strong relationship with customers

    1. A-iv ,B-ii, C-i, D-iii
    2. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
    3. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
    4. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

  73.  Match the item of List I with the iteam of List II and suggest the correct code of combination:
    List 1 List 2
    A. 80 GGC  i. Deduction in respect of rent paid
    B. 80 GG ii. Deduction in respect of contribution given by company to political parties
    C. 80 GGA iii. Deduction in respect of contribution given by any person to political parties
    D. 80GGb  iv. Deduction in respect of certain donations for scientific search

    1. A-iii B-i, C-ii, D-iv
    2. A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
    3. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
    4. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

  74.  Match the item of List I with the item of List II
    List 1 List 2
    A. Introduction  i. Companies from other high income countries increase exports to the innovating country
    B. Growth  ii. Competitors from other high income countries may begin production in developing countries
    C. Maturity  iii. A few competitors at home
    D. Decline  iv. Competitors in other high income countries begin production for their domestic markets

    1. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
    2. A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
    3. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
    4. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

  75.  What is the correct sequence of distribution of amount realized under section 154 of CGST rules?
    a. Appropriated against the administrative cost of the recovery process.
    b. Appropriated against any other amount due from defaulter under the Act or IGST Act.2017
    c. Appropriated against the amount due to be recovered from defaulter.
    d. Balance amount if any shall be refunded to the defaulter
    1. A,B,C,D
    2. A,C,B,D
    3. C,A,B,D
    4. C,B,A,D
  76.  Arrange the following in correct sequence:
    A. Income under the different heads of income
    B. Deduction from gross total income
    C. Adjustment of losses of the current year and earlier years
    D. Rounding off
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. A,C,B,D
    2. A,B,C,D
    3. A,B,D,C
    4. A,D,B,C
  77.  Which of the following industry verticals received boost amid covid-19 pandemic lockdowns?
    A. Online education, gaming and entertainment
    B. E-commerce and e payment infrastructure
    C. Retailing and pharmaceuticals
    D. Hospitality and healthcare services
    E. Manufacturing and MSMEs
    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. A,B and D only
    2. A,C and E only
    3. A,B and C only
    4. C,D and E only
  78.  Arrange the following management function in a logical sequence of getting things done.
    A. Planning
    B. Staffing
    C. Organizing
    D. Coordinating
    E. Controlling
    F. Directing
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:1. A, B, C, D, F, and E
    2. A, C, B, F, D, and E
    3. A,C,B,D, F, and E
    4. A,C,B,D,E, and F
  79.  Sequence the following CSR eligibility criteria and spending as per the provisions of the Indian companies Act 2013.
    A. Positive net worth of Rs.500 crores or more
    B. Two percent of average profit spend on CSR
    C. Net profit of Rs.5 crores or more in given financial year
    D. Turnover of Rs.1.000 crore or more
    E. Penal action for noncompliance
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. E,B,D,C, and A
    2. B,E,A,C, and D
    3. D,D,C,B, and E
    4. C,B,A,D, and E
  80.  Sequence the steps in CRM process?
    A. Developing CRM programs
    B. Collection of customer data
    C. Analyzing customer data
    D. Identify the target customers
    E. Implementing programs
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. A,B,C,E,D
    2. B,C,D,A,E
    3. B,C,A,E,D
    4. C,D,E,A,B
  81.  Sequence of the following activities in the process of standard costing.
    A. Establishing standard costs
    B. Measurement of actual costs
    C. Identifying variances and causes of variance
    D. Disposing the variances to cost and profit centers
    E. Comparison of actual and standard costs
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. A,B,E,C,D
    2. A,B,C,D,E
    3. A,B,E,D,C
    4. A,B,D,C,E
  82.  Sequence of the following activities in the process of accounting
    A. Journalizing the transaction in the books of entry
    B. Recording the business annual financial statements
    C. Preparation of annual financial statements
    D. Preparation of the trial balance
    E. Deriving meaningful inferences for business decisions
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. A,B,C,D,E
    2. A,B,D,E,C
    3. D,C,E,B,A
    4. B,A,D,C,E
  83.  Sequence the following in the capital budgeting process
    A. Cash flow estimation
    B. Identify discounting rate
    C. Project selection decision
    D. Determination of NPV
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. A,B,C,D
    2. A,B,D,C
    3. D,A,B,C
    4. B,A,D,C
  84.  Which two of the following are correct about TDS certificate?
    A. TDS on salary payment –Form 16
    B. TDS on non-salary payment –Form 16A
    C. TDS on rent –Form 16B
    D. TDS on sale of property–Form 16C
    Choose the correct options:
    1. A and B
    2. A and C
    3. A and D
    4. B and C
  85.  Statement I: contracts whose objects or consideration are unlawful are avoid.
    Statement II: contracts in restraint of legal proceedings are void.Code:
    1. Both statements are correct
    2. Both statements are incorrect
    3. Statement I is correct but II is not incorrect
    4. Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
  86.  Assertion A: workers participation in management is involvement of workers only in such areas of activities of the enterprises where they can make some positive contribution.
    Reasoning R: workers may not be competent enough to understand and appreciate the managerial aspects of the enterprise.Code:
    1. Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are correct but R is the right explanation of A
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect
    4. Both A and R is incorrect
  87.  Assertion A: credits flows to agriculture and SME sector have increased in recent years.
    Reasoning R: Reserve Bank of India has gradually relaxed various controls in credit market.Code:
    1. Both A and R are correct but R is the right explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation of A
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect
    4. Both A and R is incorrect
  88.  Assertion A: TRIMs and TRIPs provisions facilitates and promotes FDI.
    Reason R: TRIMs and TRIPs provisions remove restrictions and address capital flow sensitivities.
    Choose the correct response from following:
    1. Both A and R are correct but R is the right explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation of A
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect
    4. Both A and R is incorrect
  89.  Assertion A: Equilibrium price of a commodity is the price at which the quantity demanded of the commodity equals the quantity supplies.
    Reason R: Equilibrium, is the condition, once determined tends to persists in time.
    Choose the right options:
    1. Both A and R are correct but R is the right explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation of A
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect
    4. Both A and R is incorrect

Comprehension

A mutual fund is a special type of investment institution which acts as an investment conduit. It pools the savings of relatively small investors in a well- diversified portfolio of sound investment. Mutual funds issue securities (known as unit) to the investors (known as unit-holders) in accordance with the quantum of money invested by them.The profit (or losses) are shared by the investors in proportion to their investments.A mutual funds is set up in the form of a trust which has (i) a sponsor,(ii)trustee,(iii) Asset Management Company(AMC) and (iv) custodian.The trust is established by the sponsor who is like promoter of a company.The trustees of the mutual fund hold its property for the benefit of unit-holders.The trustees are vested with the general power of superintendence and direction over AMC.They monitor the performance and compliance of the SEBI regulations by the mutual fund. The AMC manages the funds by making investment in various types of securities. The custodian holds the securities of the various scheme of the mutual fund in its safe custody. As an investment intermediary, mutual funds offer a variety of service/advantages to the relatively small investors who,On their own,cannot successfully construct and manage an investment portfolio mainly due to the small size ot their funds, lack of expertize/experience and so on. These inter-alia, include convenience in the terms of lower denomination of investment and liquidity, lower risk through diversification, export management and reduced transaction cost due to economics of scale.

Sub questions

    • 91. Who among the following monitors the compliance of SEBI regulations by the mutual fund?
      1. Sponsor
      2. Trustee
      3. AMC
      4. Custodian
    • 92. The sponsor of a mutual fund is similar to
      1. Sole proprietor of a firm
      2. Partner of a partnership firm
      3. Promoter of a company
      4. Director of a company
    • 93. AMC manages funds by investing in
      1. Stock market securities only
      2. Credit instruments only
      3. Government bonds only
      4. Various types of securities
    • 94. Which among the following is not a part of mutual fund trust?
      1. Sponsor
      2. Custodian
      3. Depository
      4. Trustees
    • 95. Mutual fund is
      1. Investment intermediary
      2. Venture capital
      3. NBFC
      4. Non-profit organization

Comprehension

The famous Taj palace hotel and towers became the centre of one of the most deadly terrorist attacks in the Indian – sub continent on 26 nov. 2018.The employee’s behavior during the crisis saved the lives of nearly 300 guests.The conditions of Taj after this was so disastrous that it would have been profitable to leave the hotel as it was rather than reopening it.
However,Taj made remarkable effort of recovering not just to restore its damaged installations but also to ensure customer satisfaction as well as to uplift the spirit of all employees and staff.
The employee at Taj is viewed as an asset and is the real profit centre.’the criterion of the Taj people philosophy displays our commitment to and belief in our people says Bernard Martyris,is former senior VP,HR.In it is ‘Special thanks and recognition system” (STARS) it aims at rewarding employees across all levels.The employee can earn points on the recommendation of colleagues of guests.Taj people Philosophy (TPP) covered all the aspects of and employee career planning from his joining till the death.Taj also implemented the popular performance management system called balance score card in which employee could reviews his performance and make improvements.

Sub questions

    • 96. Hiring the right people for organization like Taj hotel requires which of the following?
      A. Compete to get best employees
      B. Hire for competency and inclination
      C. Be the most preferred employer
      D. Choose the most talented
      Choose the correct option:
      1. (a) and (b)
      2. (b) and (c)
      3. (a),(b) and (c)
      4. (b),(c) and (d)
    • 97. Developing the employees to provide service quality does require which of the following?
      1.Training of employees
      2.Continuous instruction with employee
      3. Setting standard for employees
      4. Recognize and reward the employees across all levels
      Choose the correct answer
      1. A and B
      2. C and D
      3. Only A
      4. A,B,C and D
    • 98. Providing necessary support system for employees require which of the following?
      1. Friendly environment
      2. Providing all the equipment and system needed by employees to deliver service
      3. Internal controls
      4 .Service oriented process
      Choose the correct answer
      1. Only A
      2. B and C
      3. A ,B, and C
      4. B, C, and D
    • 99. Retaining the best people by Taj did not include
      1. making them as a part of vision
      2. promoting them out of turn
      3. rewarding the employees
      4. treating employees as customers
    • 100. Which approach did not help Taj to restore its glory?
      1. collective bargaining
      2. customer retention
      3. treating employee as customer
      4. implementation of performance management system.

Answer Key

1 (3) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (2) 7 (1) 8 (1) 9 (3) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (1) 13 (3) 14 (2) 15 (1) 16 (3) 17 (1) 18 (1) 19 (4) 20 (1) 21 (3) 22 (4) 23 (3) 24 (1) 25 (4) 26 (3) 27 (3) 28 (3) 29 (1) 30 (2) 31 (3) 32 (1) 33 (2) 34 (2) 35 (2) 36 (3) 37 (1) 38 (3) 39 (2) 40 (4) 41 (4) 42 (3) 43 (Bonus marks) 44 (4) 45 (4) 46 (1) 47 (4) 48 (1) 49 (2) 50 (3) 51 (4) 52 (4) 53 (2) 54 (2) 55 (4) 56 (3) 57 (4) 58 (1) 59 (3) 60 (2) 61 (4) 62 (2) 63 (1) 64 (1) 65 (3) 66 (3) 67 (2) 68 (1) 69 (3) 70 (1) 71 (1) 72 (4) 73 (3) 74 (3) 75 (1) 76 (2) 77 (1) 78 (3) 79 (2) 80 (3) 81 (2) 82 (1) 83 (4) 84 (2) 85 (1) 86 (1) 87 (2) 88 (1) 89 (1) 90 (2) 91 (2) 92 (3) 93 (4) 94 (3) 95 (1) 96 (3) 97 (4) 98 (4) 99 (2) 100 (1)

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  1. As per Section 52 of the companies Act, 2013, the balance in the Security Premium Account cannot be utilized for
    1. payment of dividend
    2. writing off discount on issue of shares
    3. issue of fully paid-up bonus share
    4. capital losses
  2. Match List – i with List – ii
    List – I List – ii
    1. Ind AS – 16 (i) Income tax
    2. Ind AS – 38 (ii) Leasing
    3. Ind AS – 17 (iii) Intangible assets
    4. Ind AS – 12 (iv) Property, plant and equipments

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (1)-(iv), (2)- (iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii)
    2. (1)-(iv), (2)- (iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
    3. (1)-(iii), (2)- (ii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i)
    4. (1)-(iv), (2)- (ii), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii)

  3. Which of the following is the predecessor of the IRDA Act, 1999 ?
    1. The Insurance Act, 1938
    2. The List Insurance Corporation Act, 1956
    3. The marine Insurance Act, 1963
    4. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
  4. Statement (1) : If the tax liability has been reduces within the goal framework, it is tax planning
    Statement (II): If tax liability has been reduced to get benefit of deduction available under the income tax, it is called tax evasion.
    In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct ?
    1. Both the Statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
    2. Statements (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect
    3. Both Statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
    4. Statements (ii) is correct but (i) is incorrect.
  5. Organization structure that shows a unique combination of strategy, structure and management process is known as
    1. free-form organization
    2. virtual organization
    3. network organization
    4. Horizontal organization
  6. Match List – 1 and List – II
    List – 1  List – II
    (a) Interbank call market (i) Money Market
    (b)Commercial bills (ii) Promissory note
    (c) Commercial papers  (iii) Short-term maturity
    (d) Treasury bills (iv) Government papers

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a)-(i), (b)- (ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
    2. (a)-(iii), (b)- (i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
    3. (a)-(i), (b)- (iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
    4. (a)-(iv), (b)- (iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

  7. Find the marginal revenue of a firm that sells a product at a price of Rs. 10 and price elasticity of demand for the products is (-) 2.
    1. Rs 5
    2. Rs 10
    3. Rs 30
    4. Rs 15
  8. Return of income is submitted under which section of income tax act ?
    1. Section 138 (1)
    2. Section 142 (1)
    3. Section 139 (1)
    4. Section 129 (1)
  9. The attitude based on beliefs, opinion, knowledge or information about the particular event which the employees possesses is
    1. behavioural attitude
    2. posititve attitude
    3. Cognitive attitude
    4. affective attitude
  10. Arrange the following in order of their manifestations>
    a. Offer
    b. Acceptance
    c. Breach of contract
    d. Contract
    Choose the correct option from the following :
    1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    2. (a), (b), (d) and (c)
    3. (b), (c), (a) and (d)
    4. (a), (d), (c) and (b)
  11. Which one is NOT true regarding the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS) ?
    1. It absorbs surplus liquidity of enduring nature arising out of large capital flows
    2. It absorbs surplus liquidity through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills
    3. Mobilised surplus liquidity is held in the MSS account with the Reserve Bank of India
    4. MSS account liquidity can be used for normal government expenditure of capital nature
  12. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I List – II
    (a) 80 TTA
    1.  (i) Deduction in respect of payment of interest on loan
      taken for higher education
    (b) 80 CCD  (ii) Deduction in respect of interest on loan taken for residential house property
    (c) 80 E  (iii) Deduction in respect of interest on deposits in savings account
    (d) 80 EE  (iv) Deduction in respect of contribution to national pension system

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
    2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
    3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
    4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

  13. X is an individual of 55 years of age having gross total income Rs. 3,50,000. What is the tax liability for assessment year 2018-19 ?
    1. Rs. 5,000
    2. Rs . 2,500
    3. Rs. 2,580
    4. Rs. 3,000
  14. Redeemable preference shares of Rs 2,00,000 are to be redeemed at par for which fresh equity share of Rs 80, 000 are issued at a discount of 10%. What amount should be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account ?
    1. Rs. 2,00,000
    2. Rs. 1,20,000
    3. Rs. 1,28,000
    4. Rs. 72,000
  15. liers, distributors in order to earn and retain their long-term preference and business is known as
    1. relationship marketing
    2. social marketing
    3. niche marketing
    4. service marketing
  16. If two regression coefficients are -0.8, and -0.2, then the value of coefficient of correlation is
    1. -0.16
    2. -0.50
    3. + 0.40
    4. – 0.40
  17. Statement (I) : The arithmetic mean is an all purpose average.
    Statement (II) : Median and mode are called positional averages.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct ?
    1. Both the Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
    2. Both the Statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect
    3. Statements (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect
    4. Statements (ii) is correct but (i) is incorrect
  18. Shopping goods have which of the following features ?
    (a) These products are generally durable in nature
    (b) Consumers generally compare the goods of various sellers and then buy such goods
    (c) Per unit price of these goods is generally high
    (d) These goods are regularly and continuously in demand
    (e) These goods are sold as a result of aggressive promotional effortsChoose the right answer from the options given below :
    1. (c), (d) and (e)
    2. (a), (b) and (c)
    3. (b), (c) and (d)
    4. (a), (c) and (e)
  19. Which of the following does NOT fall in the ambit of the objectives of Competition Act, 2002 ?
    1. Encourage Competition
    2. Prevent abuse of dominant position
    3. Prevent monopolistic rights arising out of intellectual property
    4. Regulate mergers and acquisitions
  20. Which of the following are NOT sources of secondary data ?
    (a) Interview
    (b) Questionnaire
    (c) Observation
    (d) Unpublished thesis
    (e) Annual reportChoose the correct answer from the following :
    1. (a), (d) and (e)
    2. (b), (c) and (d)
    3. (c), (d) and (e)
    4. (a), (b) and (c)
  21. . Which of the following committees is related to the investor protection ?
    1. Bhagwati Commettee
    2. N.K.Mitra Committee
    3. J.R.Verma Committee
    4. L.C.Gupta Committee
  22. Statement (I) : Though closely related, job evaluation and performance appraisal are not the same.
    Statement (II) : The purpose of job evaluation is to fix the remuneration and other relevant benefits.
    In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct ?
    1. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct
    2. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect
    3. Statements (I) is correct, while Statement (II) is incorrect
    4. Statement (I) is incorrect, while Statement (II) is correct
  23. Which of the following is NOT a main stage in a customer relationship life cycle ?
    1. Customer acquisition
    2. Customer development
    3. Customer satisfaction
    4. Customer annoyance
  24. In tax laws, donation to approved and notified association for scientific research is allowed as
    1. 125% of the donation
    2. 100% of the donation
    3. 175% of the donation
    4. 150% of the donation
  25. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I  List – II
    (Theories of Profit)  (Economists)
    (a) Risk theory of profit  (i) Schumpeter
    (b) Innovation theory of profit  (ii) Walker
    (c) Rent theory of profit  (iii) Hawley
    (d) Dynamic theory of profit  (iv) Clark

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
    2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
    3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
    4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

  26. Promoting team spirit, harmony and unity within the organization is the principle of
    1. order
    2. scalar chain
    3. spirit de corps
    4. equity
  27. In which of the following commodities, when a consumer spends so much that negative income effect overwhelms the positive substitution effect so as the underlying demand curve is positively sloped ?
    1. Inferior goods
    2. Superior goods
    3. Giffen goods
    4. Normal goods
  28. Question
  29. Following are the vents of an organizations culture :
    (a) Customer orientation and employee policies
    (b) Quality orientation, directing and motivating styles.
    (c) Decision-making, products and services and responsibilities to society
    (d) Reaction to competitors and gratitude towards nation
    (e) Role ambiguities, trade union and policies.
    Select the correct sequence for the above events :
    1. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
    2. (a), (c), (d) and (e)
    3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  30. Peter F. Drucker noted the relationship between selling and marketing in which of the following terms ?
    1. marketing is a subsidiary component of selling
    2. The aim of marketing is to make selling superfluous
    3. The aim of selling is to make marketing superfluous
    4. selling and marketing are essentially the same thing
  31. Quantitative import restrictions that limit the quantity of a product being imported is called
    1. embargo
    2. quota
    3. trade restraint
    4. import tariff
  32. Which one of the following analyses is suitable for risk-return analysis in financial decisions ?
    1. CAOM analysis
    2. SWOT analysis
    3. Capital gearing
    4. EVA analysis
  33. A company issues 10% irredeemable preference shares. The face value per share is Rs. 100, but the issue price is Rs. 95. What is the cost of preference share ?
    1. 10.63%
    2. 10.73%
    3. 10.83%
    4. 10.53%
  34. A ‘sale and lease back’ arrangement is more suitable for a lessee having
    1. liquidity crisis
    2. surplus fund
    3. high profit
    4. no-profit no-loss
  35. Assertions (A) : U-shaped long-run average cost curve is based on the assumption that economies of scale prevails at small levels of production and diseconomies of scale prevails at larger level of production.
    Reason (R) : Decreasing returns to scale arises primarily because as the scale of operation increases, it becomes even more difficult to manage the firm effectively.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the followings codes is correct?
    1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
    2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
    3. (A) is correct and (R) is not incorrect
    4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  36. Customer behaviour does NOT consist which of the following activities ?
    1. Obtaining
    2. Consuming
    3. Disposition
    4. Producingn
  37. Which of the following are considered non-parametric test ?
    (a) Mann-Whitney U test
    (b) Kruksal-Wallis test
    (c) F-test
    (d) T-test
    (e) Chi-test
    Choose the correct option from the following
    1. (a), (b) and (e)
    2. (a), (b) and (c)
    3. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    4. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
  38. In which of the following pricing policies, a firm charges higher initial price for the product and reduces it over time as the demand at higher price is satisfied ?
    1. Peak load pricing
    2. Incremental pricing
    3. Skimming
    4. Penetration pricing
  39. The current market price of a company’s share is Rs. 90 and the expected dividend per share next year is Rs.4.5. If the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 8%, the shareholder’s required rate of return will be
    1. 8%
    2. 5%
    3. 20%
    4. 13%
  40. The retail supply chain does NOT include
    1. Manufactures.
    2. Retailers
    3. Wholesalers
    4. Regulators
  41. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I  List – II
    (Objectives of business firms)  (Hypothesis)
    (a) Maximization of firms’ growth rate  (i) Baurnol’s hypothesis
    (b) Managerial utility function  (ii) Marris hypothesis
    (c) Satisfying behaviour  (iii) Williamson hypothesis
    (d) Sales maximization  (iv) Cyber-March hypothesis

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
    2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
    3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
    4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

  42. Under which of the following situations, economies of scale exists to the potential and persists ?
    1. When firm is too small and too specialized
    2. When firms’ decision to hire inputs do not result in an increase in the input costs
    3. When firm is too large and over diversified
    4. When long-run costs of producing a unit falls as the output increases
  43. Which among the following is NOT true about BASEL ?
    1. Initially it was named as Committee of Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices (CBRS)
    2. BASEL was established by the Central Bank Governors of fifteen countries.
    3. It was established by the end of 1974
    4. Disturbances in international currency and banking markets were responsible for its establishment
  44. Which of the following is an instance of non-conventional dumping ?
    1. Sporadic dumping
    2. Predatory dumping
    3. Reverse dumping
    4. Persistent dumping
  45. The social environment of the job affects people and is also affected by them and not by management alone, is the main proposition of
    1. Contingency theory of organization
    2. System theory of organization
    3. Classical theory of organization
    4. Neo-classical theory of organization
  46. Which one of the following is used for international money transfer ?
    1. RTGS
    2. NEFT
    3. SWIFT
    4. DD
  47. Which among the following is NOT a correct statement ?
    1. Hedge funds are not mutual funds.
    2. Hedge funds can be sold to public.
    3. Investors in mutual funds must pay various fees and expenses.
    4. Mutual funds provide economies of scale to investment decisions.
  48. Which of the following NOT come under the definition of ‘information’ as per the Right to Information Act (RTI Act), 2005 ?
    1. Logbooks
    2. Data material held in electronic from
    3. File noting
    4. Circular
  49. When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or more resellers, it is known as
    1. direct marketing
    2. indirect marketing
    3. integrated marketing
    4. multi-level marketing
  50. ‘Doctrine of Caveat Emptor’ means
    1. buyer should make payment well in time
    2. buyer should be beware of all aspects of buying
    3. buyer will be responsible for the whole payment
    4. buyer will not be responsible at any cost
  51. Assertions (A) : At times, a business may face the situation where it has to shut down its operations.
    Reason (R) : It the revenue is less than its variable cost, the operation should be closed down.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
    1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    2. (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
    3. (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
    4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  52. Assertions (A) : Brainstorming technique demands generation of a number of alternatives to a problem.
    Reason (R) : Participants generate as many alternatives as possible without evaluating them in brainstorming sessions.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
    1. Statement (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
    3. Statement (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
    4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  53. For a very large population the ratio between SEX and o is 8:40. The Sample size n will be-
    (a) 5
    (b) 25
    (c) 32
    (d) 48
  54. Statement (I) : Agreement without consideration is always valid.
    Statement (II) : All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
    1. Statement (I) and (II) both are correct
    2. Both Statement (I) and (II) are incorrect
    3. Statement (I) is incorrect Statement (II) is correct
    4. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect
  55. Assertion (A) : Reserve Bank of India is an important regulatory and administrative authority to execute FEMA provisions.
    Reason (R) : Being monetary authority and custodian of foreign exchange, Reserve bank of India enjoys requisite expertise of FEMA administration.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
    1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
    2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
    3. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
    4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
  56. Which of the following is true about India Trade Policy (Export-Import), 2015-2019 ?
    (a) Doubling the exports (both merchandise and services)
    (b) Achieve 3.5% share in global exports
    (c) Introduced two new schemes (MEIS and SEIS)
    (d) Introduced simplified Aayat-Niryat FormChoose the correct answer from the following
    1. (a) and (b) only
    2. (a) and (c) only
    3. (a), (b) and (c) only
    4. All are correct
  57. Which is the most appropriate mode of entry in international business to an enterprise with little experience of international markets ?
    1. Acquisition
    2. Strategic Alliance
    3. Joint Venture
    4. Exporting
  58. New reform of Indian banking system include
    (a) Digitisation of bank operations
    (b) Banking consolidation
    (c) Borrowing from Government
    (d) Agency work
    Choose the correct option from the following :
    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (c) and (d)
    3. (b), (d) and (c)
    4. (a), (c) and (d)
  59. Study the following information
    Covariance between X and Y series = – 17.8
    Standard deviation of X series = -6.6
    Standard deviation of Y series = -4.2
    No of pairs of observation = 20
    The coefficient of correlation is
    1. – 0.642
    2. 0.642
    3. 0.253
    4. -0.253
  60. Capital structure and leverage decisions come in the ambit of
    1. investment decisions
    2. distribution decisions
    3. financing decisions
    4. dividend decisions
  61. SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of IDBI to
    1. takeover the functions of small business financing of IDBI
    2. takeover the venture capital operation of IDBI
    3. reconstruct and rehabilitate the sick and closed industrial units financed by IDBI
    4. facilitate, finance and promote India’s foreign trade
  62. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I  List – II
    (a) Sec. 6(i) (i) Agriculture Income
    (b) Sec. 10 AA  (ii) Leave Travel Concession
    (c) Sec. 10(i) (iii) Resident
    (d) Sec. 10 (5)  (iv) Leave Salary

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
    2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
    3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
    4. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

  63. ‘Motivation-force or level of efforts is not equal to satisfaction and performance’ is propounded by
    1. Porter-Lawler model
    2. Vroom’s expectancy theory
    3. X and Y theory
    4. Adam’s equity theory
  64. What is the probability that sum of outcomes on pair of dice is equal to 8 ?
    1. 6/36
    2. 5/36
    3. 4/36
    4. 3/36
  65. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I  List – II
    (a) Net Income approach  (i) Inventory management
    (b) Gordan Model (ii) Capital budgeting
    (c) Internal rate of return  (iii) Capital structure theory
    (d) Record level  (iv) Dividend theory

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
    2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
    3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
    4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

  66. A statement of change in financial position typically would NOT disclose the effect of
    1. share capital issued to acquire productive facilities.
    2. dividends on share declared
    3. cash dividened declared but not yet paid
    4. purchase and retirement of treasury stock
  67. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I  List – II
    (Trade and Finance Institution)  (Headquarters)
    (a) WTO (i) Brussels
    (b) IMF  (ii) Geneva
    (c) FAO (iii) Washington
    (d) EU  (iv) Rome

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
    2. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
    3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
    4. (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

  68. Assertion (A) : According to Net Income (NI) approach, capital structure dicision is relevant in the valuation of firm.
    Reason (R) : A firm can change its total value and its overall cost of capital by change in the degree of leverage in its capital structure.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
    1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
    2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
    3. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
    4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
  69. SUGAM is also know as
    1. ITR – 1
    2. ITR – 2
    3. ITR – 3
    4. ITR – 4
  70. The essence of the law of diminishing returns is
    1. inelastic production
    2. negative marginal production
    3. declining total production
    4. declining average production
  71. Which of the following are the rights of a Statutory Auditor ?
    (a) To receive remuneration
    (b) To attend the Board of Doctors’ Meeting
    (c) To attend the General meeting
    (d) To visit the branch officeChoose the correct answer from the following :
    1. (a) and (b)
    2. (a), (b) and (d)
    3. (a), (c) and (d)
    4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  72. Miller-Orr Model is used in the management of
    1. inventory
    2. leverage
    3. receivables
    4. cash
  73. Redressal machanism for consumer disputes under Section 9 of the Consumer Protection Act envisages a
    1. single – tier system
    2. two –tier system
    3. three – tier system
    4. open system independent of hierarchy
  74. Currency swap is a method of
    1. hedging against foreign exchange risk
    2. speculating in foreign exchange
    3. leverage instrument used by cooperative banks
    4. mode of payment in international trade
  75. Statement (I) : t-test and F-test are based on the identical assumptions.
    Statement (II) : t-test is used for comparison between two groups whereas F-test is used for comparison between more than two groups.
    In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
    1. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct
    2. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect
    3. Statements (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect
    4. Statements (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect
  76. Credit worthiness score in India ranges between
    1. 300 to 600
    2. 300 to 900
    3. 500 to 1000
    4. 900 to 1600
  77. Which of the following reflects the sum of perceived tangible and intangible benefits and costs to a customer ?
    1. Customer satisfaction
    2. Customer delight
    3. Customer value
    4. Customer expectation
  78. After US dollar, which of the following currencies has largest weightage in determining the value of SDR ?
    1. Japanese Yen
    2. Chinese Yuan (Renminbi)
    3. Euro
    4. British Pound
  79. Match List – I with List – II
    List –I List – II
    (a) Fiscal, monetary and industrial policies (i) Social responsibilities.
    (b) Social obligations towards several stakeholders  (ii) Stakeholders/interest group
    (c) Consumers, shareholders, suppliers, creditors etc.  (iii) Business ethics
    (d) Moral principles that defines the right or wrong  (iv) Economic policies

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
    2. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
    3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
    4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

  80. A firm consumes 90000 units of a certain item of raw material in its production process annually. It costs Rs 3 per unit, the cost per purchase order is Rs 300 and the inventory carrying cost is 20% per year. What is the EOQ?
    1. 9470 units
    2. 9487 units
    3. 9480 units
    4. 9840 units
  81. Following are the steps in the activity-based cost allocation :
    (a) Identification of the main activities
    (b) Collection of cost pool
    (c) Determination of the activity cost drivers
    (d) Calculation of activity driver rate
    (e) Charging the cost of activities to productsSelect the correct sequence of the above steps :
    1. (a), (b), (c), (e), (d)
    2. (a), (b), (e), (d), (c)
    3. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
    4. (a), (d), (c), (b), (e)
  82. List out from the given statements the important ethical principles that a business should follow :
    (a) To take the necessary action for the development of the concerned industry or business
    (b) pay taxes and discharge other obligations promptly
    (c) To ensure the best utilisation of the human resources,
    (d) Refrain from secret kickbacks or pay-offs to customers, suppliers, administrators, etc.
    (e) Ensure payment of fair wages and fair treatment of employees.Select the correct sequence of the above steps :
    1. (c), (d) and (e)
    2. (b), (d) and (e)
    3. (a), (b) and (c)
    4. (a), (c) and (e)
  83. Which among the following institutions is NOT a part of World Bank group ?
    1. International Development Association (IDA)
    2. International Monetary Found (IMF)
    3. International Finance Corporation (IFC)
    4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
  84. Chalapathi Rao Committee was constituted for restructuring of
    1. State Financial Corporation in India
    2. Commercial Banks in India
    3. Co-operative Banks in India
    4. Regional Rural Banks in India
  85. Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of price discrimination?
    1. Firm must have monopoly power
    2. Product have multiple close substitutes and different uses
    3. Markets are separated and segmented
    4. Price elasticity of product must differ in different markets
  86. One belt, one road initiative (BRI) is NOT intended to
    1. trade protectionism
    2. strengthening logistic and supply chain
    3. improve cost competitiveness
    4. rebalance trade dominance
  87. Following are the information for a house property
    Municipal value – Rs 4,50,000
    Fair rental value – Rs 5,00,000
    Standard rent Rs – 4,80,000
    Actual rent – Rs 4,20,000
    What is the gross annual value of the house property ?
    1. Rs. 4,80,000
    2. Rs. 5,00,000
    3. Rs. 4,20,000
    4. Rs.4,50,000
  88. Which among the following is NOT included in negotiable instrument ?
    1. Cheque
    2. Demand Draft
    3. Promissiory Note
    4. Mutual Fund
  89. Which of the following characteristics are related to relationship marketing?
    (a) Product feature orientation
    (b) Product benefit orientation
    (c) Frequent consumer contact
    (d) High concern for quality
    Choose the correct option from the following :
    1. (b), (c) and (d)
    2. (a), (b) and (c)
    3. (a), (c) and (d)
    4. (a), (b) and (d)
  90. Under which of the following situations, the decision outcome on evaluation of investment opportunities vary under NPV and IRR methods per se ?
    (a) Time disparity
    (b) Cost disparity
    (c) Life disparity
    (d) Volume disparity Choose the correct combination of situations :
    1. (c) and (d) only
    2. (b) and (d) only
    3. (a), (b) and (c) only
    4. (b), (c) and (d) only
  91. Which of the following commodities is kept outside the purview of GST?
    1. Tobacco products
    2. Petroleum products
    3. Edible oils
    4. Insurance products
  92. The channel alternative is NOT to be assessed on the basis of
    1. economic criteria
    2. control criteria
    3. adaptive criteria
    4. accumulation criteria
  93. Product A requires 10 kg of material at the rate of Rs.5 kg. The actual consumption of material for the manufacturing of product A come to 12 kg of material at the rate of Rs. 6 per kg. Direct material cost variance is
    1. Rs. 22 (favourable)
    2. Rs. 22 (unfavourable)
    3. Rs. 12 (favourable)
    4. Rs. 12 (unfavourable)
  94. Deduction u/s 37 (1) is allowed under tax lawns for those expenditure which are
    1. revenue
    2. capital
    3. both revenue and capital
    4. deferred revenue expenses
  95. Excess capacity is NOT noticed is which of the following market conditions ?
    1. Monopoly
    2. Monopolistic competition
    3. Oligopoly
    4. perfect competititon
  96. Which of the following are included in digital payment system ?
    (a) RTGS
    (b) Demand draft
    (c) NEFT
    (d) Cheque
    Choose the correct option from the following :
    1. (a), (c) and (d)
    2. (b) and (d) only
    3. (a) and (c) only
    4. (b), (c) and (d)
  97. Amount unutilised in capital gain account scheme for which exemption claimed u/s 54 shall be treated as long-term capital gain, if
    1. 2 years have expired from the date of transfer
    2. 2 years have expired from the date of deposit
    3. 3 years have expired from the date of transfer
    4. 3 years have expired from the date of deposit
  98. Match List – I with List – II
    List – I  List – II
    (a) Cyber Crime  (i) Intellectual Property Right Act.
    (b) Doctrine of Caveat Emptor (ii) Negotiable Instrument Act
    (c) Dishonour of Bill  (iii) Sale of Goods Act
    (d) Patent of Copyrights  (iv) The Information Technology Act

    Choose the correct option from those given below :
    1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
    2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
    3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
    4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

  99. The arithmetic mean of 10 items is 50. If each item is increased by 5, then new arithmetic mean would be
    1. 50
    2. 55
    3. 60
    4. 45
  100. Which of the following types of goodwill is considered to be the best
    1. Dog goodwill
    2. Cat goodwill
    3. Rat goodwill
    4. Cow goodwill

 

Answer Key

1 (1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (2) 7 (1) 8 (3) 9 (3) 10 (2) 11 (4) 12 (1) 13 (3) 14 (3) 15 (1) 16 (4) 17 (1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 21 (2) 22 (1) 23 (3) 24 (4) 25 (3) 26 (3) 27 (3) 28 (1) 29 (4) 30 (2) 31 (2) 32 (1) 33 (4) 34 (1) 35 (2) 36 (4) 37 (1) 38 (3) 39 (4) 40 (4) 41 (1) 42 (4) 43 (2) 44 (3) 45 (4) 46 (3) 47 (2) 48 (3) 49 (Bonus Marks) 50 (2) 51 (2) 52 (1) 53 (2) 54 (3) 55 (1) 56 (4) 57 (4) 58 (1) 59 (1) 60 (3) 61 (1) 62 (4) 63 (1) 64 (2) 65 (2) 66 (2) 67 (1) 68 (1) 69 (4) 70 (2) 71 (3) 72 (4) 73 (3) 74 (1) 75 (1) 76 (2) 77 (3) 78 (3) 79 (4) 80 (2) 81 (3) 82 (2) 83 (2) 84 (4) 85 (2) 86 (1) 87 (1) 88 (4) 89 (1) 90 (3) 91 (2) 92 (4) 93 (2) 94 (1) 95 (4) 96 (3) 97 (3) 98 (3) 99 (2) 100 (2)

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  1. Which of the following is not a force in the Porter Five Forces model?
    (a) Buyers
    (b) Suppliers
    (c) Complementary products
    (d) Industry rivalry
  2. …………………corporation produces in home country or in a single country and focuses on
    marketing these products globally or vice a versa.
    a. Global
    b. International
    c. Transnational
    d. None of the above

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—————-comapny produces, markets, invests and operates across the world
a. Global
b. International
c. Transnational
d. Multinational

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