Test  Paper

1. if the teacher is not in the mood of teaching due to poor health, then he/she should
   (a) ask his/her fellow teachers to take extra class
   (b) let students plan and enjoy
   (c) teach students no matter how he/she feels
   (d) tell his/her experiences and other motivational stories to students
2. Evaluation should be
   (a) continuous
   (b) annual
   (c) quarterly
   (d) monthly
3. Inclusive education implies
   1. Ensuring learning outcome of every child to be the same
   2. Including the disabled in the main stream
   3. Provides compulsory education for children below 14 years
   4. Ensuring that no child is left behind in education
4. The reflective level teaching is:
   (a) teacher-centered and subject-centered but not learner-centered
   (b) not teacher-centered but is subject-centered and learner-centered
   (c) teacher-centered and not subject-centered and learner-centered
   (d) neither teacher-centered nor subject-centered but is learner-centered
5. Modern teaching support system includes:
   (a) Smart boards
   (b) Green Boards
   (c) Charts
   (d) Maps
6. Research is
   (a) an unorganized approach for resolving problems
   (b) careful, patient, and systematic study
   (c) mere accumulation of knowledge
   (d) purely for academic purpose
7. The purpose of bibliography is
   (a) to make research reports appear authentic
   (b) to signify vast knowledge of researcher
   (c) to facilitate further research
   (d) all of the above
8. Snowball sampling is the process of selecting a sample using
   1. Networks
   2. Groups
   3. Snowballs
   4. Computer Programs
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good hypothesis?
   (a) Testability
   (b) Objectivity
   (c) Complexity
   (d) Conceptual clarity
10. Using someone else’s research without due acknowledgement is called as:
    (a) Copyright
    (b) Plagiarism
    (c) Publication
    (d) Patent
11. Below are given two sets in which Set 1 describes the types of listener involved in communication, while Set II indicates their characteristics:
    Set – I
    (Types of listener involved in Communication)
    (a) Non Listener
    (b) Marginal Listener
    (c) Evaluative Listener
    (d) Active Listener
    Set – II
    (Characteristics)
    (i) is engaged in information other than the one needed
    (ii) receives information without processing the significance in the context of communication
    (iii) looks into the relevance of the information for understanding its implication
    (iv) pays heed to the communicated information occasionally
    Match the two sets and give your answer by choosing from the options :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    1.(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    2.(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    3.(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
    4.(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
12. According to Dr. Deval, communication means:
    (a) Sharing of ideas
    (b) Sharing of experiences
    (c) perception
    (d) Sharing of emotions
13. To select media to teach a lesson to class, teacher should consider objectives of the lesson, age group of students, knowledge about media to be used and:
    (a) teaching methods
    (b) teaching aids
    (c) mass media
    (d) evaluation system
14. Traffic signals are example of …………. communication.
    (a) mass
    (b) non-verbal
    (c) verbal
    (d) one to many
15. Sometimes mass media misleads society because receivers are:
    (a) heterogenous
    (b) in large numbers
    (c) illiterate
    (d) critical
16. If in a certain code language, POPULAR is written as IZOFKLK, then how will LANGUAGES will be written.
    (a) ZMOFTZTHV
    (b) HVTMWNOQ
    (c) HVTZFTMZO
    (d) HKMQSFJOL
17. Find the missing letters in the following series.
    QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU,—————
    (a) UAV
    (b) UAT
    (c) TAS
    (d) TAT
18. A trader mixes three varieties of refined oil costing Rs. 100, Rs. 40 and Rs. 60 per litre in the ratio 2:4:3 in terms of litre, and sells the mixture at Rs. 66 per litre. What percentage of profit does he make ?
    1. 12%
    2. 10%
    3. 9%
    4. 8%
19. If 6 men or 8 children complete one task in 24 days, then how many days will be required to complete the task for men and 12 children?
    (a) 12
    (b) 9
    (c) 10
    (d) 16
20. If the term HJLN is converted into ILOR, then by the same principle what could be the correct alternative for the term DFHJ?
    (a) FHJN
    (b) EHKN
    (c) EGIL
    (d) FHJN
21. Statements: some locks are numbers.
    All numbers are letters.
    All letters are words.
    Conclusions : (i) some words are numbers
    (ii) some locks are letters.
    (a) if only conclusion (i) follows.
    (b) if only conclusion (ii) follows.
    (c) if either (i) or (ii) follows
    (d) if both (i) and (ii) follows.
22. ‘some flowers are green’ is an example of
    (a) universal affirmative
    (b) universal negative
    (c) particular affirmative
    (d) particular negative
23. Inductive argument proceeds from
    1. Universal to Particular
    2. Particular to Universal
    3. Universal to Universal
    4. Particular to Particular
24. Deduction and induction are two main forms of
    (a) Beliefs
    (b) Concepts
    (c) Reasoning
    (d) Assumptions
25. Which of the following is\are the valid conclusions based on the statements given below?
    Statement I : All donkeys are hardworking.
    Statement II : Some hardworking animals are human beings.
    Conclusion 1 : Some donkeys are hardworking.
    Conclusion 2 : Some donkeys are human beings.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 2 both
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. What will be the binary equivalent of 38 ₁₀ ?
    (a) 110110 ₂
    (b) 100110 ₂
    (c) 101110 ₂
    (d) 100101 ₂
27. Which of the following services can help students to access computer files from remote locations through mobile phones?
    (a) Facebook
    (b) Whatsapp
    (c) Twitter
    (d) Renren
28. Which of the following is the correct full form of IPTV?
    (a) International and Political Television
    (b) Internet Proliferation Television
    (c) Inter Provisional Television
    (d) Internet Protocol Television
29. The world’s first computer, ENIAC was developed in the year:
    (a) 1945
    (b) 1940
    (c) 1946
    (d) 1960
30. Match the following
    Set – I
    (a) First Generation
    (b) Second Generation
    (c) Third Generation
    (d) Fourth Generation
    Set – II
    (i) Transistor
    (ii) VLSI microprocessor
    (iii) Vacuum tube
    (iv) Integrated circuit
    Select the correct option from the following
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
    (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
    (4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
31. The animals which feed only on other animals are known as
    (a) Omnivores
    (b) Carnivores
    (c) Herbivores
    (d) Autotrophs
32. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of sustainable development ?
    1. Use of natural resources minimally
    2. Use of natural resources for our benefit
    3. Use of natural resources judiciously so that they are available for future generations
    4. Preserve our natural resources for our future generation
33. Convention one Ozone Depleting Substances is also known as:
    (a) Basel Convention
    (b) Montreal Protocol
    (c) Ramsar Convention
    (d) Conference of Parties
34. Unit used to measure noise level is:
    (a) Joule
    (b) PPM
    (c) Bit
    (d) dB
35. Green india Mission was part of the:
    (a) Millennium Development Goals
    (b) River Action Plan
    (c) Swatch Bharat Abhiyan
    (d) National Action Plan for climate change
36. Chairman of UGC committee appointed in 1969 for the purpose of administrative legislation of the universities was
    (a) Dr. D.S.Kothari
    (b) Dr. P.G.Gajendragadkar
    (c) Prof. Yashpal
    (d) None of the above
37. Technical and scientific education was given in:
    (a) Vedic system of education
    (b) Pre-Vedic system of education
    (c) buddhist system of education
    (d) Islamic system of education
38. According to UGC list published the state with the most universities is:
    (a) Uttar Pradesh
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Tamil Nadu
    (d) Rajasthan
39. The expansion of SANKALP is,
    1. Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition of Language Programme
    2. Skills Acquisition and Karatae Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
    3. Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
    4. Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisiton for Livelihood Promotion
40. Most of the State Universities are …………… in nature.
    (a) Affiliating Universities
    (b) Deemed Universities
    (c) Self-financing Universities
    (d) Private Universities

DI

Consider the following table that shows the production of fertilizers by a company (in 10000 tonnes) during the year 2011 to 2018

Answer the question based on the data contained in the table :

1. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 2013 to 2014 ?
   1. 20.4%
   2. 21.4%
   3. 22.6%
   4. 24.2%
2. The average production of 2012 and 2013 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the following pairs of years ?
   1. 2011 and 2012
   2. 2011 and 2017
   3. 2012 and 2014
   4. 2015 and 2016
3. In which year, the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year was maximum ?
   1. 2012
   2. 2013
   3. 2015
   4. 2018
4. What was the approximate percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2018 compared to that in 2011?
   1. 157%
   2. 165%
   3. 177%
   4. 182%
5. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production of the given years?
   1. 2
   2. 3
   3. 4
   4. 5

Read the passage and answer the following question

An important difference between human beings and animals is the property of language. Animals have a rudimentary information process but this process does not have the sophistication and complexity of human language. If two dogs communicate, they pass on information but they can’t discuss details the way humans can. While humans are blessed to possess the language faculty, most of the time they don’t utilize it to its greatest potential. Perhaps this is because human beings tend to react rather than respond. And a lot of the message of languages is lost in this reaction.
In the daily use of language, people forget the complex process involved in order to put even one word in place. The wonder of this process lies in the fact that it is involuntary in nature, the whole set of chain processes right from the command in the brain to the forming of words from the message required to the movement of the vocal chords and corresponding movements in the lungs and mouth takes place within seconds. Perhaps the whole suggestion of ‘think before you speak’ may lead to a silent world!
In the world of daily interaction, language becomes a marker and a means of projecting identity. The people around us identify us with a certain style of using language and unknowingly, each language user follows this style by habit. It is not a bad idea to record one’s spoken communication from time to time, as this will assist in removing any unwanted elements that the speech may be expressing. Similarly, it is a good idea to step back once in a while and read one’s written communication objectively.

1. Animals do not possess language because
   1. the power of speech is missing
   2. the life breath is missing
   3. the level of complexity is missing
   4. the information-sharing is missing
2. When human beings react rather than respond
   1. The lose the message
   2. The lose control
   3. They become emotional
   4. They can’t speak
3. The world will become a silent place if people will think
   1. too much
   2. before listening
   3. before responding
   4. before speaking
4. Which of the following forms is assumed by the language style of a person ?
   1. a reaction
   2. a habit
   3. a response
   4. a thought
5. The process of language is a wonder because it is
   1. a reaction
   2. a response
   3. smooth
   4. involuntary

Answer

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (4) 4 . (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7 . (c) 8. (1) 9. (c) 10. (b)  11. (4) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (2) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (2) 24. (c) 25. (c)  26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (2) 31. (b) 32. (3) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (2) 40. (1)  DI 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) Comprehension 1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4)

Test Paper

1. Which of the following should be used to engage students?
   (a) Teaching aids
   (b) Real-life examples
   (c) Discussions in class
   (d) All of the above
2. Classroom teaching will be effective when
   (a) The teacher teaches according to the level of students.
   (b) The teacher entertains students.
   (c) The teacher is strict in class.
   (d) The teacher assigns projects to the students.
3. Reflective Practice implies use of one’s
   (a) Cognition
   (b) Metacognition
   (c) Metacognition on cognition
   (d) Reinforcement of learning
4. In context of dynamic teaching environment, which of the following statement is true?
   (a) Teacher is a dependent variable and student is an independent variable.
   (b) Teacher is an independent variable and student is a dependent variable.
   (c) Both teacher and student are intervening variables.
   (d) None of the above
5. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way not taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be
   (a) Always discouraged to consult some other books on the subject.
   (b) Always encouraged to consult other books on the subject.
   (c) Suggested to seek permission of their respective class teachers before referring to other books.
   (d) No action required.
6. Consider the following:
   (i) Stratified random sampling
   (ii) Cluster sampling
   (iii) Quota sampling
   (iv) Multi-stage sampling
   Which of the above can be used in surveys?
   (a) (i), (ii), and (iii)
   (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
   (c) (i) and (ii)
   (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
7. A field experiment is one that takes place in
   (a) Real world
   (b) Laboratory
   (c) Both in real world and laboratory
   (d) Naturalistic environment
8. Which of the following terms is closely related to generalization of outcome of research? (a) External validity
   (b) Inference
   (c) Both (a) and (b)
   (d) None of the above
9. A well-written ………attracts potential readers and facilitates the cataloguing of a research report in an electronic database.
   (a) title
   (b) summary
   (c) abstract
   (d) synopsis
10. A proposal that may provisionally serve as a starting point for further research is known as a ……….
    (a) hypothesis
    (b) theory
    (c) model
    (d) Principle
11. If it is assumed that communication has no beginning or end, then it is termed as
    (a) Mediation
    (b) Process
    (c) Interaction
    (d) Transaction
12. Which communication service has been recently closed in India?
    (a) Postal service
    (b) Landline
    (c) Fax
    (d) telegram
13. The relational approach in classroom communication comes from :
    (a) Mass communication
    (b) Intra-personal communication
    (c) Inter-personal communication
    (d) Organisational communication
14. Which of the following steps would you consider first for an effective communication?
    (a) Select the channel of communication
    (b) Plan the evaluation procedure
    (c) Specify the objectives of communication
    (d) Identify various media for communication
15. The Informal Communication Network is also known as
    (a) Grapevine
    (b) Two step flow theory
    (c) Reinforcement theory
    (d) Symbolic Interaction theory
16. Pointing towers a photograph, Swami said, ‘The lady n the photograph is wife of son of my father’s father’. How is the lady related to Swami’s sister
    (a) Mother
    (b) Maternal aunt
    (c) Aunt
    (d) Either (a) or (c)
17. In a certain code language, ‘526’ means ‘sky is blue’ ‘24’ means ‘blue colour’, and ‘436’ means ‘colour is fun’, Which of the following digit in that language means ‘fun’?
    (a) 5
    (b) 4
    (c) 3
    (d) 2
    (e) None of the above
18. The nest term in the series is: 56, 40, 27, 17,10,….. .
    (a) 6
    (b) 5
    (c) 8
    (d) 7
19. Which of the following will complete the series?
    EG, IK, NP, ……….., AC
    (a) RT
    (b) TV
    (c) SU
    (d) SV
20. Rohit crosses a 700 m wide road in 35 seconds. What is his speed in km/h?
    (a) 54
    (b) 76
    (c) 72
    (d) 84
21. Statements: All birds are humans.
    Some humans are not honest
    Conclusions:
    (i) Some birds are not honest.
    (ii) Some human are birds
    (a) Only I follows
    (b) Only II follows
    (c) Both I and II follow
    (d) Neither I nor II follows
22. Which of the following statements are false?
    I. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
    II. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
    III. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
    IV. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as true or false.
    Codes:
    (a) II, III and IV
    (b) I and III
    (c) II and IV
    (d) I and II
23. ‘To slow a beast, you break its limbs. To slow a nation, you break its people.’ – Identify the argument involved in the above:
    (a) deductive
    (b) demonstrative
    (c) analogical
    (d) inductive
24. ‘Every law is an evil, for every law is an infraction of liberty’.
    The above is :
    (a) A preposition of facts
    (b) An argument
    (c) A justification of belief
    (d) An explanation of facts
25. Statement: “You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation.” – A line in an appointment letter.
    Assumptions:
    I.The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.
    II.Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
    (a) If only assumption I is implicit
    (b) If only assumption II is implicit
    (c) If neither I nor II is implicit
    (d) If both I and II are implicit.
26. Which among the following is the largest unit?
    (a) Zettabyte
    (b) Yottabyte
    (c) Gettabyte
    (d) Petabyte
27. FORTRAN is the acronym for
    (a) File translation
    (b) Format translation
    (c) Formula translation
    (d) Floppy translation
28. In the context of computer generated (typed) text, identify the odd non-verbal clue from the following:
    (a) bold
    (b) emoticon
    (c) italic
    (d) underline
29. Identify the incorrect pair from the following:
    (a) .ttf = font file
    (b) .wav = audio file
    (c) .jpg = graphic file
    (d) .exe = exclusive data file
30. In the contest of internet what is the full form of ftp?
    (a) formatted transfer process
    (b) formal texting process
    (c) file transmission procedure
    (d) file transfer protocol
31. Dyslexia is caused by
    (a) Arsenic
    (b) Lead
    (c) Cadmium
    (d) Mercury
32. The living organism that serves as an indicator of air pollution is
    (a) Viruses
    (b) Fungi
    (c) Bacteria
    (d) E. Coli
33. The percentage of energy coming from the Sun is re-radiated towards the space?
    (a) 50%
    (b) 15%
    (c) 25%
    (d) 30%
34. The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are :
    (a) deposition and erosion
    (b) photosynthesis and respiration
    (c) evaporation and transpiration
    (d) fixation and denitrification
35. Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from north to south because of:
    (a) cheap labour
    (b) expanding regional market
    (c) cheap and abundant supply of power
    (d) high yield and high sugar content in sugarcane
36. Education is a part of
    (a) State list
    (b) Centre list
    (c) Concurrent list
    (d) Both (a) and (c)
37. The Vikram Sarabhai Space Research Centre is located at
    (a) Thirunananthapuram
    (b) Sriharikota
    (c) Pune
    (d) Bengaluru
38. Yoga Education Mission is related to:
    (a) Medical Education
    (b) General Education
    (c) Technical Education
    (d) Professional Education
39. Which of the following is not a learning method of Ancient India?
    (1) Story telling
    (2) Seminar
    (3) Yaujanasatika
    (4) Question-answer method
40. Match the following :
    List – I
    (a) Open University
    (b) Dual Mode University
    (c) Mixed Mode University
    (d) Deemed University
    (e) Specialised University
    List – II
    (i) Odisha State Open University, Odisha
    (ii) Amity University
    (iii) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
    (iv) University of Mumbai, Mumbai
    (v) School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi
    The correct code is :
    (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
    1. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
    2. (v) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
    3. (iii) (ii) (v) (i) (iv)
    4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions  :

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geopolitical context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

1. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?
   (a) Aspirations of people
   (b) Modern day dynamism
   (c) Economy in the global context
   (d) Strategic interests
   Code :
   (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
   (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
   (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
   (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
2. More productive employment demands :
   (1) Pervasive use of technology
   (2) Limiting competitive market place
   (3) Geo-political considerations
   (4) Large industries
3. Absence of technology would lead to :
   (a) Less pollution
   (b) Wastage of precious natural resources
   (c) Low value addition
   (d) Hurting the poorest most
   Code :
   (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
   (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
   (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
   (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
4. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :
   (1) Unbridled technological growth
   (2) Importing plant machinery
   (3) Sidelining environmental issues
   (4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity
5. Envisioning a developed India requires :
   (1) Aspiration to become a major economic player
   (2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
   (3) Focus on short-term projects
   (4) Development of core technological strengths

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.  Answer questions based on the data contained in the table.

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production − Exports.

1. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year ?
   (1) 2013
   (2) 2014
   (3) 2015
   (4) 2016
2. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million) ?
   (1) 2.64
   (2) 2.72
   (3) 2.79
   (4) 2.85
3. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year :
   (1) 2012
   (2) 2013
   (3) 2014
   (4) 2015
4.  In which year, the population of country was the highest ?
   (1) 2013
   (2) 2014
   (3) 2015
   (4) 2016
5. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012-2016 ?
   (1) 104
   (2) 102.1
   (3) 108
   (4) 100.1

Answer

1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4 . (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7 . (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)  11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C) 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D)  26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (D) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (3) 40. (1) Comprehension 1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (5) DI 1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4)

Test  Paper

1. Which of the following is the sequence of different levels of teaching?
   (a) Memory level-Understanding level-Reflective level
   (b) Understanding level-Memory Level-Reflective Level
   (c) Reflective level-Understanding level-Memory level
   (d) Memory level-Reflective level-understanding level
2. What is meant by the term ‘curriculum’?
   (a) The subject of study offered by an educational institution.
   (b) Organized whole of learning and other experiences provided by educational institutions to realize set goals.
   (c) The prescribed syllabi in various subjects, plus practical courses and project\dissertation.
   (d) Theory and practical courses to be completed to qualify for a level of education.
3. Which of the following is\are the teaching maxims?
   (i) From psychological to logical
   (ii) From analysis to synthesis
   (iii) From concrete to abstract
   (iv) Follow nature
   (a) (i), (ii), and (iii)
   (b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
   (c) (i), (iii), and (iv)
   (d) All the above
4. In order to modify the undesirable behavior of a student, the most effective method is
   (a) To punish the student.
   (b) To bring it to the notice of parents.
   (c) To find out the reasons for the undesirable behavior and provide remedies.
   (d) All of the above
5. Which of the following indicates the concept of Zone of Proximal Development (APD) as suggested by psychologist Lev Vygotsky ?
   1. A learner’s brain develops faster in childhood.
   2. Friends interaction is very important for proper development of child.
   3. What a learner can do with help and without help.
   4. A learner learns effectively when it is supported with real life, examples.
6. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
   (1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making,
   Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
   (2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
   (3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
   (4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.
7. The mobile phone penetration in India has increased manifold from 1998 to 2018. What kind of study should be conducted to prove this?
   (a) Ex-post facto research
   (b) Experimental research
   (c) Longitudinal research
   (d) Cross-sectional research
8. A non-government organization conducted a study in a Gram Panchayat to see the impacts of campaign approach on enrollment and retention of rural elementary school children. This is an example of
   (a) Descriptive study
   (b) Field experiment
   (c) Ex-post facto research
   (d) Historical research
9. There are two sets given below.
   Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set – II indicates their characteristics.
   Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
   Set – I
   (Research types)
   (a) Fundamental research
   (b) Applied research
   (c) Action research
   (d) Evaluative research
   Set – II
   (Characteristics)
   (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
   (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
   (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
   (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations
   (v) Enriching technological resources
   Code :
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
   (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
   (2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
   (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
   (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
10. The quality of research is judged by the
    (a) Relevance of research
    (b) Methodology adopted in conducting the research
    (c) Depth of research
    (d) Experience of researcher
11. If you are visiting a foreign country, but don’t know the language, then what kind of communication barriers will you face?
    (a) Semantic barriers
    (b) Physical barriers
    (c) Cultural barriers
    (d) Physiological barriers
12. The primary channels used by individuals to communicate with others are
    (a) Radio and television
    (b) E-mail
    (c) Tone of voice
    (d) Sight and sound
13. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication behaviours imply making the contents relevant.
    Reason (R) : It is none of the functions of teachers to make students organize information for effective interaction
    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    3. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    4. Both (A) and (R) are true
14. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?
    (A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
    (B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
    (C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
    (D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
15. The way one interprets information around oneself is
    (a) Related to one’s values, beliefs and past experiences.
    (b) Always negative
    (c) Always positive
    (d) None of the above
16. A truck completed a journey of 630 km in 6 hours. Initially the speed of the truck was 100 km/h, it was then increased to 110 km/h. Find the time after which the speed was increased?
    (a) 2.8 hours
    (b) 3.5 hours
    (c) 3.0 hours
    (d) 2.5 hours
17. A has three children. B is the brother of C, and C is the sister of D; E, who is the wife of A, is the mother of D. There is only one daughter of the husband of E. What is the relation between D and B?
    (a) B is brother of D
    (b) B is not related to D
    (c) D is sister of B
    (d) None of the above
18. If P is true, Q is true. If P is false, Q is false. The relation of this proposition is
    (a) Independent
    (b) Equivalent
    (c) Subcontrary
    (d) Contradictory
19. If and R +1/S = 1, then S + 1/T = 1,  R × S × T = ———————-
    1. 2
    2. 1
    3. – 1
    4. – 2
20. In certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code?
    (a) VLNDM
    (b) FHQKN
    (c) XPNFO
    (d) VNLDM
21. Pramanas are
    (a) Indian Philosophy.
    (b) Means of Knowledge.
    (c) The evidence.
    (d) None of these
22. Among the following proposing (a, b, c and d) two are related in such a way that both of them together cannot be false although they may both be true. Select the code that states those two propositions.
    (a) All statements are intelligent.
    (b) Some students are intelligent.
    (c) No students are intelligent
    (d) Some students are not intelligent.
    Code:
    1. (b) and (d)
    2. (b) and (c)
    3. (a) and (b)
    4. (c) and (d)
23. Consider the example provided below :
    “This gavaya is like my cow”
    This is an example of which means of knowledge (pramana)
    1. comparison
    2. implication
    3. perception
    4. Inference
24. Statement: Government has permitted unaided colleges to increase their fees.
    Assumptions:
    I. Unaided colleges are in financial difficulties.
    II. Aided colleges do not need to increase fees.
    (A) If only assumption I is implicit
    (B) If only assumption II is implicit
    (C) If either I or II is implicit
    (D) If neither I nor II is implicit
    (E) If both I and II are implicit.
25. Statements: Government has spoiled many top ranking financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors of these institutions.
    Conclusions:
    I. Government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes taking into consideration the expertise of the person in the area of finance.
    II.The Director of the financial institute should have expertise commensurate with the financial work carried out by the institute.
    A. Only conclusion I follows
    B. Only conclusion II follows
    C. Either I or II follows
    D. Neither I nor II follows
    E. Both I and II follow
26. 1 nibble is equal to ………………………… .
    (a) 4 bits
    (b) 8 bits
    (c) 32 bits
    (d) 64 bits
27. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
    (a) 0 – 7
    (b) 0 – 9, A – F
    (c) 0 — 7, A – F
    (d) None of the above
28. Read the following spreadsheet (MS-EXCEL) :
    EXCEL Spreadsheet

    	A	B	C
    1	10	16
    2	20
    3	8
    4	12
    5	0

    The equation in cell B2 is = A2+＄B＄1.
    The equation is then copied and pasted to cells B3, B4 and B5. What should be the value in B3?
    1. 56
    2. 24
    3. 44
    4. 36

29. Which of the following statement is correct?
    (a) Virus improves the speed of processing information through computer
    (b) Internet does not allow the virus to spread
    (c) Virus is a part of software
    (d) Virus is an operating system
30. In the hypermedia database, information bits are stored in the form of:
    (a) Signals
    (b) Cubes
    (c) Nodes
    (d) Symbols
31. A geographic unit that collects, stores and releases water is a
    (a) Wasteland
    (b) Watershed
    (c) Wetland
    (d) None of the above
32. Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park is situated at ……………………… .
    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Madhya Pradesh
    (c) Uttarakhand
    (d) Odisha
33. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.
    (1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
    (2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
    (3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
    (4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
34. How many biodiversity hotspots are in India?
    (a) 8
    (b) 10
    (c) 3
    (d) 4
35. Global warming during winter becomes more pronounced at the :
    (a) Poles
    (b) Tropic of Cancer
    (c) Tropic of Capricon
    (d) Equator
36. SWAYAMPRABHA is an initiative of
    (a) IITs and IISc
    (b) Ministry of Education
    (c) Ministry of human Resource Development
    (d) NCERT
37. Consider the statements:
    (i) Fundamental rights cannot be suspended during Emergency.
    (ii) Indian constitution is rigid as well as flexible.
    Which of the above statement(s) is\are correct?
    (a) Only (i)
    (b) Only (ii)
    (c) Both (i) and (ii)
    (d) Either (i) or (ii)
38. The title of Yashpal Committee Report (1993) is
    (a) ICT in Teacher education
    (B) Learning without burden
    (c) Learning through Broadcasting
    (d) None of the above
39. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :
    (a) the Central Information Commissioner
    (b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
    (c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
    (d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women
    Select the correct answer from the code given below :
    (1) (a), (b), (c) and
    (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
    (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
    (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
40. AICTE was formed in
    (a) 1945
    (b) 1949
    (c) 1950
    (d) None of the above

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions :

In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer- electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost work forces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors.

In terms of capital for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.

In a knowledge based theory of the firm this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as a resource with at least the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time- proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive resource in the semiconductor industry.

Based on the passage answer the following questions :

1. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors ?
   (A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.
   (B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.
   (C) Because of new competitors.
   (D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
2. How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ?
   (A) Through regional capital flows.
   (B) Through regional interactions among business players.
   (C) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.
   (D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
3. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ?
   (A) Access to capital
   (B) Common office buildings
   (C) Superior knowledge
   (D) Common metals
4. The passage also mentions about the trend of
   (A) Global financial flow
   (B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
   (C) Regionalisation of capitalists
   (D) Organizational incompatibility
5. What does the author lay stress on in the passage ?
   (A) International commerce
   (B) Labour-Intensive industries
   (C) Capital resource management
   (D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (Rs. in lakh) generated by a publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as three categories of items. Answer questions based on the data contained in the table.

1. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books ?
   (1) 45%
   (2) 55%
   (3) 35%
   (4) 25%
2.  The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of items, is
   (1) 0
   (2) 1
   (3) 2
   (4) 3
3. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately :
   (1) Rs. 194 lakh
   (2) Rs. 187 lakh
   (3) Rs. 172 lakh
   (4) Rs. 177 lakh

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently some of it is lost because of a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered :

Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident :

(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(b) 40% of the students were females.
(c) One-third of the male students were average.
Answer questions based on the data given above :

1. How many female students are excellent ?
   (1) 0
   (2) 8
   (3) 16
   (4) 32
2. What proportion of female students are good ?
   (1) 0
   (2) 0.25
   (3) 0.50
   (4) 0.75

Answer

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4 . (C) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7 . (B) 8. (D) 9. (1) 10. (B)  11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (3) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (3) 20. (D) 21. (B) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (A) 25. (E)  26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (2) 29. (C) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (1) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (1) 40. (A) Comprehension 1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (D) DI 1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2)

Test Paper

1. Which of the following are levels of teaching?
   (i) Andragogical level of teaching
   (ii) Memory level of teaching
   (iii) Reflective level of teaching
   (iv) Pedagogical level of teaching
   (v) Understanding level of teaching
   Codes:
   (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
   (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
   (c) (i), (iii), (iv)
   (d) (ii), (iii), (v)
2. With smaller classes, teachers are much more able to
   (a) Identify learning problems
   (b) Provide individual attention
   (c) Adapt instruction to individual differences among students.
   (d) All the above
3. A new teacher to start with will have to
   (a) Enforce discipline in class.
   (b) Establish rapport with the students.
   (c) Cut jokes with the students.
   (d) Tell the students about his qualifications.
4. Students prefer those teachers who
   (a) Dictate notes in the class.
   (b) Give important questions before examination.
   (c) Can clear their difficulties regarding subject matter.
   (d) Are themselves disciplined.
5. Which of the following is\are true of whole-group instruction?
   (a) Permits students to progress at their own pace.
   (b) Convenient for teaching the same skills or content to the entire class.
   (c) Gives the teacher a chance to introduce new skills at a level suited to particular students.
   (d) All the above
6. Which of the following research is used to check solutions for real-life problems on the basis of already existing theories?
   (a) Applied research
   (b) Action research
   (c) Ex-post facto research
   (d) Historical research
7. The most significant approach of evaluation is
   (a) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation.
   (b) Conducting objective term end examination.
   (c) Maintaining cumulative records of students.
   (d) Semester system evaluation.
8. The classification of studies into exploratory, descriptive, analytical or predictive research is based on
   (a) Logic of the research
   (b) Outcome of the research
   (c) Process of the research
   (d) Purpose of the research
9. Good research questions are
   (a) Clear, significant and ethical.
   (b) Feasible, clear, significant and ethical.
   (c) Feasible, clear, significant and include a hypothesis.
   (d) Feasible, clear and ethical.
10. When studying an active independent variable, an intervention or treatment given to group of participants is called
    (a) Experimental group
    (b) Control group
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Neither (a) or (b)
11. On the occasion of Diwali, employees of a company arranged for a get-together. Interaction between them at the event will be
    (a) Formal communication
    (b) Informal communication
    (c) Dyadic communication
    (d) Public communication
12. Which of the following terms is closely related to feedback?
    (a) Brainstorming
    (b) Heuristics
    (c) Cybernetics
    (d) None of the above
13. Which of the following explains feedback?
    (a) Non-verbal communication only
    (b) Environmental noise
    (c) Verbal and non-verbal receiver responses
    (d) Verbal communication only
14. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.
    Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.
    Code :-
    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
    3. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
    4. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
15. The most powerful barrier of communication in the class is
    (a) Noise in the classroom
    (b) Confusion on the part of teacher
    (c) Outside disturbance in the classroom
    (d) Lack of teaching aids
16. If in a bag, the one tenth balls are black coloured, half are red coloured, and the remaining 80 balls are white coloured, find the total number or balls?
    (a) 150
    (b) 220
    (c) 280
    (d) 200
17. A man spends Rs. 3500 and saves 12× 1/2% of his income. His monthly income (in rupees) is
    (a) 3937.50
    (b) 4000
    (c) 4250
    (d) 4160
18. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be
    (1) YKCPGAYLQ
    (2) BNFSJDBMR
    (3) QLYAGPCKY
    (4) YQKLCYPAG
19. Which of the following the largest fraction is 6/7,5/6,7/8,4/5
    (1) 6/7
    (2) 4/5
    (3) 5/6
    (4) 7/8
20. If a vender sells apples at Rs.170 per kg he suffers 15% loss. If he sells at Rs. 230 per kg, then what is his profit percentage?
    (1) 15
    (2) 10
    (3) 5
    (4) 20
21. Formal fallacies are caused by
    (a) Wrong information
    (b) Misuse of language
    (c) Poor logic
    (d) Misleading assumptions
22. Statements :
    All politicians are honest.
    All honest are fair.
    Conclusions :
    I. Some honest are politicians.
    II. No honest is politician.
    III. Some fair are politicians.
    IV. All fair are politicians.
    Choices
    (a) None follows
    (b) Only I follows
    (c) Only I and II follows
    (d) Only I and III follows
23. Given below are two premises (a) and (b).
    From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn.
    Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
    Premises :
    (a) Untouchability is a curse.
    (b) All hot pans are untouchable.
    Conclusions :
    (i) All hot pans are curse.
    (ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
    (iii) All curses are untouchability.
    (iv) Some curses are untouchability.
    Codes :
    (1) (i) and (ii)
    (2) (ii) and (iii)
    (3) (iii) and (iv)
    (4) (ii) and (iv)
24. Statements:
    I.The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months.
    II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few
    months.
    (A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
    (B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
    (C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
    (D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes;
    (E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
25. Statements:
    I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belongs to higher income group.
    II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other localities.
    (A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
    (B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
    (C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
    (D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes;
    (E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
26. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit :
    (a) Kilobyte (b) Byte (c) Megabyte
    (d) Terabyte (e) Gigabyte (f) Bit
    Give your answer from the following code :
    (1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
    (2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)
    (3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
    (4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
27. Which of the following are instant messaging application?(i) Facebook Messenger
    (ii) Whatsapp
    (iii) Safari
    (iv) Opera
    (v) Telegram
    (vi) Tiktok
    Select the correct code:
    (a) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi)
    (b) (i), (ii), (v)
    (c) (ii), (iii), (v)
    (d) (i), (ii), (v)
28. Sending and receiving messages\signals occurring at the same time is denoted by
    (a) Synchronous
    (b) Asynchronous
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) None of the above
29. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed ?
    (1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
    (2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
    (3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
    (4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
30. The XML stands for
    (a) Extensible Markup Language
    (b) External Makeup Language
    (c) External Markup Logic
    (d) External Magnitude Language
31. Which of the following is not an ore of coal?
    (a) Lignite
    (b) Limonite
    (c) Bituminous
    (d) Anthracite
32. The almost identical basic phenomenon is known by different names across countries in the world.
    Match the following
    List-I
    (Phenomenon)
    A. Cyclone
    B. Hurricane
    C. Typhoon
    D. Willy Willy
    List-II
    I. India
    II. USA
    III. China
    IV. Australia
    Codes:
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    (c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    (d) None of the above
33. Assertion (A) : In urban areas, smog episodes occur frequently in winters.
    Reason (R) : In winters, a lot of biomass is burnt by people for heating purposes or to keep themselves warm.
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
    (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
34. High concentration of oxides of nitrogen can cause
    (a) Headache
    (b) Dizziness and loss of consciousness
    (c) Respiratory irritation
    (d) All of the above
35. Which of the following pollutants mainly released by burning of diesel fuel is responsible for photochemical smog?
    (a) Oxides of sulphur
    (b) Oxides of nitrogen
    (c) Oxides of carbon
    (d) None of the above
36. The President should address his resignation to
    (a) Chief Justice of India
    (b) Prime Minister
    (c) Vice-President
    (d) All of the above
37. Inter University Board was set up in 1925 to promote university activities, by sharing information and cooperation in the field of education, culture, sports, and allied areas. Now, it is known as
    (a) Association of Indian Universities
    (b) Central Advisory Board of Education
    (c) Central Board of Secondary Education
    (4) None of these
38. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on
    (1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
    (2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
    (3) Concern for human values.
    (4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.
39. The idea of ‘Democratic Decentralisation’ in India was popularized by:
    (a) A.D. Gorwala Committee, 1951
    (b) Paul H. Appleby Committee, 1953
    (c) B.R. Mehta Committee, 1957
    (d) Ashok Mehta Committee, 1978
40. Who was the president of the Constituent Assembly?
    (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    (b) Lord Ripon
    (c) Mahatma Gandhi
    (d) M.N. Roy

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions :

The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said to violate the very spirit of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As John Keats said, ‘We hate poetry that has a palpable design upon us’.

Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the ‘felt reality’ of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ‘ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel’ though that was not so in ‘former days’, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of the precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on the other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers : ‘An idea cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them. Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to feel… the attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them – most often with weapons of mockery.’

1. According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
   (A) Literary distaste for politics
   (B) Literary representation of politics
   (C) Novel with its own politics
   (D) Depiction of murky practice of politics
2. A political novel reveals
   (A) Reality of the things
   (B) Writer’s perception
   (C) Particular ideology of the readers
   (D) The spirit of literature
3. The constructs of politics by its nature is
   (A) Prevalent political situation
   (B) Ideas and Ideologies
   (C) Political propaganda
   (D) Understanding of human nature
4. Literature deals with
   (A) Human experiences in politics
   (B) Intellectual abstractions
   (C) Dry and empty ideas
   (D) Felt reality of human life
5. The observation of the novelist, Mary McCarthy reveals
   (A) unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
   (B) dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
   (C) compatibility between idea and novel
   (D) endless ideas and novels

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.

Based on the above table, answer the questions .

1. which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population ?
   (1) 1961-71
   (2) 1971-81
   (3) 1991-2001
   (4) 2001-2011
2. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is :
   (1) ~ 12.21%
   (2) ~ 9.82%
   (3) ~ 6.73%
   (4) ~ 5%
3. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021 ?
   (1) 40.34 million
   (2) 38.49 million
   (3) 37.28 million
   (4) 36.62 million
4. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person ?
   (1) 100 w
   (2) 200 w
   (3) 400 w
   (4) 500 w
5. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum ?
   (1) 1981-1991
   (2) 1991-2001
   (3) 2001-2011
   (4) 1971-198

Answer

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4 . (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7 . (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)  11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (4) 24. (d) 25. (a)  26. (3) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (3) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (2) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (3) 39. (c) 40. (a) Comprehension 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) DI 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3)

Test Paper

1. Effective teaching includes
   (a) Teacher is active but students may or may not be active.
   (b) Teacher may be active or inactive but students are active.
   (c) Teacher is active and students are active.
   (d) All the above
2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
   (a) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
   (b) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
   (c) Curriculum includes both formal and informal education.
   (d) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
3. Which of the following is a teaching instructional facilities?
   (a) LCD projector
   (b) Green board
   (c) Tape recorder
   (d) All the above
4. When a student takes the same test twice it is referred to as?
   (a) Post-test
   (b) Pre-test
   (c) Test-retest
   (d) After-test
5. Which of the following factors affect teaching ?
   Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
   (i) Teacher’s internal locus of control.
   (ii) Learner-motivation.
   (iii) Teacher’s biographical data.
   (iv) Teacher’s self efficacy.
   (v) Learner’s interest in co-curricular activities.
   (vi) Teacher’s skill in managing and monitoring.
   (vii) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.
   Codes :
   (1) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii)
   (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
   (3) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii)
   (4) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
6. Consider the following sampling techniques:
   (I) Systematic sampling
   (ii) Cluster sampling
   (iii) Quota sampling
   (iv) Snowball sampling
   (v) Multi-stage sampling
   Which of the above are quasi-probability sampling techniques?
   (a) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
   (b) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
   (c) Only (i) and (v)
   (d) Only (iii) and (v)
7. Which group of communication aspects does not disrupt the communication process in the class?
   (a) Reversing-Evaluating-Focusing
   (b) Evaluating-Focusing-Illustrating
   (c) Evaluating-Focusing-Exaggerating
   (d) Focusing-Illustrating-Exaggerating
8. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
   List-I
   A. Historical method
   B. Survey method
   C. Philosophical method
   D. Experimental method
   List-II
   I. Past events
   II. Vision
   III. Present events
   IV. Exceptional Cases
   v. Future action
   Codes:
   (a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V
   (b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V
   (c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-V
   (d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
9. A good hypothesis should be
   (a) Precise, specific and consistent with most known facts.
   (b) Formulated in such a way that it can be tested by the data.
   (c) Of limited scope and should not have global significance.
   (d) All the above
10. An example of quantitative variable is the
    (a) Date of birth
    (b) Highest educational qualification
    (c) Time taken to complete a task
    (d) Postal code
11. Which of the following explains feedback?
    (A) Non-verbal communication only
    (B) Environmental Noise
    (C) Verbal and non-verbal receiver responses
    (D) Verbal communication only
12. Live sessions or videoconferencing has …………….. interaction.
    (a) Real time
    (b) Slug time
    (c) Delay time
    (d) Media time
13. Leadership roles first emerge in which of the following kinds of communication?
    (a) Intrapersonal communication
    (b) Small group communication
    (c) Face-to-face public communication
    (d) Media-like cell phones and instant messenger
14. Expressive communication is driven by
    (1) Passive aggression
    (2) Encoder’s personality characteristics
    (3) External clues
    (4) Encoder-decoder contract
15. ‘Poor grammar’ is a type of noise
    (A) Psychological noise
    (B) Semantic noise
    (C) Contextual noise
    (D) Channel noise
16. Mohan came to Rajesh to borrow a sum of Rs. 15000. How much simple rate of interest should he charge so as to expect Rs. 18000 as the payable amount after 4 years?
    (a) 8%
    (b) 7%
    (c) 6%
    (d) 5%
17. A train runs for 2 hours at a speed of 35 kmph. It runs for 3 1\2 hours at the speed of 60 kmph and then runs for 2 1\2 hours at the speed of 70 kmph. Find the average speed of the train.
    (a) 50 kmph
    (b) 55 kmph
    (c) 80 kmph
    (d) 56.87 kmph
18. A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. D is related to E as
    (A) Daughter
    (B) Daughter-in-law
    (C) Sister-in-law
    (D) Sister
19. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes 12 : 23. The numbers are
    (A) 30, 50
    (B) 36, 60
    (C) 33, 55
    (D) 42, 70
20. Average age of 6 boys is 14 years. Average of 11 girls is 12 years. What is the average age (in year) of all boys and girls?
    (a) 12.7
    (b) 14.6
    (c) 19.3
    (d) 8.5
21. Out of the following proposition two are related in such a way that if the first proposition is true, the second one will also be true, and if the second proposition is false, the first one will also be false. Identify such pair of propositions.
    (i) All employees are honest.
    (ii) No employees are honest.
    (iii) Some employees are dishonest.
    (iv) Some employees are not dishonest.
    Select the correct code:
    (a) (ii) and (iii)
    (b) (i) and (ii)
    (c) (ii) and (iv)
    (d) (iii) and (iv)
22. Out of the following propositions two are related in such a way that these cannot be false together, but can be true together. Identify such pair of propositions.
    (i) some members are educated
    (ii) some members are uneducated
    (iii) no member is uneducated
    (iv) no member is educated
    Select the correct code:
    (a) (i) and (ii)
    (b) (i) and (iii)
    (c) (ii) and (iv)
    (d) (iii) and (iv)
23. If the proposition ‘No stamp is paper’ is definitely true, then which of the following proposition will be definitely true?
    (a) some stamps are paper
    (b) all papers are stamp
    (c) some stamps are not paper
    (d) some papers are stamp
24. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it :
    To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to
    assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
    (1) Astronomical
    (2) Anthropological
    (3) Deductive
    (4) Analogical
25. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram :
    (1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
    (2) It can provide clear method of notation.
    (3) It can be either valid or invalid.
    (4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
26. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23?
    (a) 01011
    (b) 10111
    (c) 10011
    (d) None of the above
27. If one Giga Byte is equal to 2³⁰ Bytes of data storage, then 1024 TeraBytes is equal to bits of data storage.
    (1) 2⁵⁰
    (2) 2⁵³
    (3) 2⁴⁰
    (4) 2⁵⁶
28. The software used to navigate through the web is known as
    (1) Website
    (2) Web Browser
    (3) Internet
    (4) World Wide Web
29. With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc : mean ?
    (1) Blind Computer Communication : – The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
    (2) Blind Carbon Copy : – The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
    (3) Blind Computer Communication :- The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how blind people get e-mail.
    (4) Blind Carbon Copy : The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail but will not see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
30. At which of the following states iron ore is not found?
    (a) Jharkhand
    (b) Chhattisgarh
    (c) Karnataka
    (d) Maharashtra
31. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government through additional forest and tree cover has resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of
    (1) 3.5 to 4 billion tons
    (2) 2.5 to 3 billion tons
    (3) 1.5 to 2 billion tons
    (4) 1 to 1.5 billion tons
32. Which of the following is a meteorological hazard ?
    (1) Avalanche
    (2) Coastal erosion
    (3) Landslide
    (4) Blizzard
33. Which of the following are air pollutants?
    (a) sulphur compounds
    (b) nitrogen compounds
    (c) hydrocarbons
    (d) all of the above
34. On which principle does a hydroelectric power plant work?
    (a) law of conservation of energy
    (b) the conversion of potential energy into kinetic energy
    (c) the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy
    (d) all the above
35. E-Pathashala is an initiative of
    (a) IITs and IISc
    (b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
    (c) NCERT
    (d) Both (b) and (c)
36. Who introduced English to Indian Education System?
    (a) Mountstuart education
    (b) Lord Macualay
    (c) W.W.Hunder
    (d) Lord Curzon
37. Right to free education within certain limits is
    (a) Guaranteed as a fundamental right.
    (b) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy.
    (c) Outlined in the Preamble of the constitution.
    (d) Ignored by constitution.
38. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?
    (a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
    (b) Parliament is Supreme.
    (c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
    (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
    (2) (b), (c) and (d)
    (3) (b) and (c)
    (4) (c) only
39. What can be the reason for termination of Indian citizenship?
    (a) by voluntarily acquiring citizenship of any other country
    (b) by staying out of India continuously for more than seven years
    (c) by showing disloyalty towards the country
    (d) all of the above

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions  :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps over emphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

1. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
   (A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
   (B) after training the specialists in the field.
   (C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
   (D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
2. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
   (A) increasing number of members to 126.
   (B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
   (C) consistent investment in conservation.
   (D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
3. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
   (A) Financial support from the Government of India.
   (B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
   (C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
   (D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.
4. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
   (A) 10 percent
   (B)11 percent
   (C) 12 percent
   (D) 13 percent
5. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
   (i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
   (ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
   (iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
   (iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
   Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
   (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
   (B) (i), (ii), (iv)
   (C) (i), (ii)
   (D) (i), (iii), (iv)

Question are based on the tabulated data given below :
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them :

1. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary ?
   (1) 35 – 40 years
   (2) 40 – 45 years
   (3) 45 – 50 years
   (4) 50 – 55 years
2. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 – 35 years ?
   (1) 20%
   (2) 25%
   (3) 30%
   (4) 35%
3. What is the average age of the employees ?
   (1) 40.3 years
   (2 ) 38.6 years
   (3) 47.2 years
   (4) 45.3 years
4. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary > 40,000 per month ?
   (1) 45%
   (2) 50%
   (3) 35%
   (4) 32%
5. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 – 50 years ?
   (1) 35
   (2) 42.5
   (3) 40.5
   (4) 36.5
6. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the
   employees ?
   (1) 45%
   (2) 50%
   (3) 55%
   (4) 47%

Answer

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4 . (c) 5. (1) 6. (c) 7 . (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)  11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (2) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (4) 25. (3)  26. (b) 27. (2) 28. (2) 29. (2) 30. (d) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (4) 39. (d) Comprehension 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) DI 1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3)

 Test Paper 

1. Consider the following statements:
   (i) In choice-based credit system, the burden on teachers and students increases.
   (ii) There is no condition of scoring minimum passing marks in choice-based credit system.
   Which of the above statement (s) is\are not correct?
   (a) Only (i)
   (b) Only (ii)
   (c) Both (i) and (ii)
   (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
2. The basic requirement of teaching efficiency is
   (a) Mastery on teaching skills
   (b) Mastery over use of different techniques of teaching.
   (c) Mastery over appropriate use of media and technology in teaching.
   (d) All the above
3. Which of the following skills are needed for the present-day teacher to adjust effectively with classroom teaching?
   I. Knowledge of technology
   II. Use of technology in teaching learning
   III. Knowledge of students’ needs
   IV. Content mastery
   Codes:
   (a) I and III
   (b) II and III
   (c) II, III, and IV
   (d) II and IV
4. The heuristic approach is based on
   (a) Rote memorization
   (b) Home work
   (c) Spirit of inquiry
   (c) None of the above
5. Below are given two Columns. Column-A presents the methods of teaching and Column-B presents the focus of a method. Match the two Columns.
   Column-A
   (Methods of Teaching)
   (a) Collaborative Method
   (b) Co-operative Method
   (c) Constructivist Method
   (d) Team teaching
   Column-B
   (Focus of a Method)
   (i) When expertise of teachers are used in teaching
   (ii) When emphasis is given on students as creator of knowledge
   (iii) When students share different aspects of a learning activity
   (iv) When students help each other to learn
   Select your answer from the options given below :
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
   1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
   2. (iii)(iv) (ii) (i)
   3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
   4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
6. Books and records are the primary sources of data in
   (a) Historical research
   (b) Participatory research
   (c) Clinical research
   (d) Laboratory research
7. A researcher divides his population into certain groups and fixes the size of the sample from each group. It is called
   (a) Stratified sample
   (b) Quota sample
   (c) Cluster sample
   (d) All the above
8. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of steps of research:
   (i) Identify variables and formulate hypotheses
   (ii) Write research report
   (iii) Data collection
   (iv) Literature review
   (v) Data analysis
   (vi) Sampling
   Select the correct code:
   (a) (iv), (i), (vi), (iii), (v), (ii)
   (b) (iv), (vi), (i), (v), (iii), (ii)
   (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (vi)
   (d) (v), (iv), (i), (vi), (iii), (ii)
9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format ?
   (a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
   (b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)
   (c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
   (d) Alphabetically index reference list
   Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
   (1) (a) and (b)
   (2) (b), (c) and (d)
   (3) (c) and (d)
   (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
10. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his :
    (1) Fundamental Research
    (2) Applied Research
    (3) Action Research
    (4) Evaluation Research
11. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is
    (a) Audience attitude
    (b) Audience knowledge
    (c) Audience education
    (d) Audience income
12. Which of the following is correct about components of communication?
    (a) Sender, channel, context, receiver, feedback
    (b) Symbol, understanding, receiver, response
    (c) Sender, massage, channel, receiver, feedback
    (d) Idea channel, mediator, fact-to-face interaction, response
13. Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a classroom from the following :
    (1) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement
    (2) Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics
    (3) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance
    (4) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space
14. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2018 has been conferred on
    (a) Gulzar
    (b) Vinod Khanna
    (c) Amitabh Bachchan
    (d) Manoj Kumar
15. Classroom communication is normally considered as
    (A) effective
    (B) cognitive
    (C) affective
    (D) selective
16. A train completed half a trip at 30 miles per hour and the other half at 60 miles per hour. If the whole trip was 20 miles, then how much time did the train take to complete the trip?
    (a) 90 minutes
    (b) 60 minutes
    (c) 45 minutes
    (d) 30 minutes
17. A shopkeeper purchased a product for Rs. 200 and sold it on 10% discount. He earned 20% profit even after selling it on discount. Find the market price of product.
    (a) Rs. 220.00
    (b) Rs. 230.20
    (c) Rs. 254.64
    (d) Rs. 244.44
18. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
    (A) 18
    (B) 24
    (C) 33
    (D) 36
19. If M is the sister of Z, Z is the wife of P and P is the son of A, how is Z related to A?
    (A) Daughter-in-law
    (B) Daughter
    (C) Wife
    (D) Mother
20. If GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR then GREATNESS will be coded as:
    (A) HQZFBMFRT
    (B) HPFZUMERT
    (C) HQEZUMFTR
    (D) HQFZUMFRT
21. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below :
    (A) : No man is perfect.
    (R) : Some men are not perfect.
    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
22. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them :
    Statements :
    (a) All poets are philosophers.
    (b) Some poets are philosophers.
    (c) Some poets are not philosophers.
    (d) No philosopher is a poet.
    Codes :
    (1) (a) and (b)
    (2) (a) and (d)
    (3) (a) and (c)
    (4) (b) and (c)
23. Assertion (A): In winters, people prefer wearing white clothes.
    Reason (R): White clothes are great reflectors of heat.
    1.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2.Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3.A is true but R is false.
    4. A is false but R is true.
    5. Both A and R are false.
24. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its energy requirements?
    Arguments:
    I. Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.
    II. No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India lacks in.
    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong
25. Statement: Most of those who study in premier engineering colleges in India migrate to developed nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.
    Courses of Action:
    I. All the students joining these colleges should be asked to sign a bond at the time of admission
    to the effect that they will remain in India at least for ten years after they complete education.
    II. All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations should be asked to pay entire cost of their education which the government subsidies.
    (A) If only I follows
    (B) If only II follows
    (C) If either I or II follows
    (D) If neither I nor II follows
    (E) If both I and II follow.
26. An application program that, helps the user to change any number and immediately see the result of that change is
    (a) Desktop publishing program
    (b) Database
    (c) Spreadsheet
    (d) All the above
27. Which of the following is an extension used for videos?
    (a) .MP3
    (b) .xls
    (c) .mpeg
    (d) .jpg
28. Which of the following is an open source software ?
    (1) MS Word
    (2) Windows
    (3) Mozilla Firefox
    (4) Acrobat Reader
29. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
    (1) 10101
    (2) 01101
    (3) 11001
    (4) 11011
30. Which of the following devices generates digital files of text, pictures, and other documents?
    (1) Printer
    (2) Monitor
    (3) Scanner
    (4) Light Pen
31. The main characteristic of biodiversity hotspots is\are
    (a) Threat from human beings.
    (b) Biogeographical region with a specified percentage of endemic species.
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
32. Which cyclone had hit Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and some parts of coastal Puducherry in 2018?
    (a) Phethai
    (b) Gaja
    (c) Titli
    (d) Hudhud
33. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
    (1) 50 MW
    (2) 25 MW
    (3) 15MW
    (4) 10 MW
34. Assertion (A) : People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
    Reason (R) : The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
    Choose the correct answer from the following :
    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
35. Increase in fauna and decrease in flora would be harmful due to increase in:
    (a) Diseases
    (b) CO₂
    (c) O2
    (d) Radioactive pollution
36. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every
    (a) Second year
    (b) Fifth year
    (c) One year
    (d) Third year
37. Which part of the Constitution is known as ‘Magna Carta of India?
    (a) Part XI – Relation between the Centre and State
    (b) Part XX – Constitution Amendment
    (c) Part III – Fundamental Rights
    (d) Part V – Government at Union Level
38. The main purpose of new education policy is
    (a) To provide equal opportunity of education to all.
    (b) To improve the whole education system.
    (c) To link education with employment.
    (d) None of the above
39. Cause of falling universities standard are:
    (a) Lack of Facilities
    (b) Traditional methods of teaching
    (c) Lack of Library
    (d) All above.
40. Which of the bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
    (a) Money Bills
    (b) Non-finance Bills
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) None of the above

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions :

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i- Munavvara).

Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief- stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant _farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

1. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
   (A) Burhanpur
   (B) Makrana
   (C) Amber
   (D) Jaipur
2. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
   (A) Shah Jahan
   (B) Tourists
   (C) Public
   (D) European travellers
3. Point out the true statement from the following :
   (A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
   (B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
   (C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
   (D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.
4. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
   (A) Mumtazabad
   (B) Mumtaz Mahal
   (C) Zainabad
   (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
5. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
   (A) 1632 – 1636A.D.
   (B) 1630 – 1643A.D.
   (C) 1632 – 1643A.D.
   (D) 1636 – 1643A.D.

Questions are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

1. The region which represents non-Indian scientists who are politicians.
   (A) f
   (B) d
   (C) a
   (D) c
2. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
   (A) b
   (B) c
   (C) a
   (D) d

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in per tonnes. Study the chart and answer the following questions.

1. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period ?
   (A) Saw timber
   (B) Plywood
   (C) Log
   (D) None of the above
2. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
   (A) 6
   (B) 12
   (C) 18
   (D) 20
3. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased ?
   (A) 2000
   (B) 2002
   (C) 2003
   (D) 2006

Answer

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4 . (c) 5. (2) 6. (a) 7 . (b) 8. (a) 9. (1) 10. (1)  11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (4) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (a) 25. (b)  26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a) Comprehension 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) DI 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)