U G C- NET – 1st Paper

UGC NET JRF 2019 June

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Higher Education System

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Higher Education System

Chapter 1 : Philosophy of Education

MCQ

1. (4) Soul is immortal 2. (4) 20th century 3. (4) 3  4. (4) Scientific development 5. (3) self-preservation, earning for living, duties regarding race preservation, duties of a citizen and utilization of leisure 6. (1) Practical and not useful things 7. (4) To impart objective knowledge and develop intellectual power of the student 8. (2) Second birth 9. (4) Artha, Kama, Dharma and Moksha 10. (3) Brahmacharya 11. (4) Non-violence

Chapter 2: Institution Of Higher Learning & Education In Ancient India

MCQ

1.  (4) All of the above  2. (3) Yaujanasatika  3. (4) All of the above 4. (3) Both (1) and (2) 5.(1) Indian Epistemological traditions  6. (3) Chitti-Vritti-Nirodha  7. (3) Three pitakas  8. (1) Five Subject 9. (3) 4 Vedas, 6 Vedangas, Upnishad, 6 Darshans, Purans and Tarka Shastra 10. (1) 64

Previous Year’s Answer 

1. (1) Promote equality and excellence

Chapter 3: Evolution Of Higher Learning And Research In Post-Independence India

MCQ

1. (3) Charles wood’s dispatch 2. (2) Sargent report 3. (3) 1823 4. (3) Central Advisory Board of Education 5. (4) Saddler Commission 6. (1) Wood’s dispatch 7. (3) Saddler commission 8. (4) Radhakrishnan Commission 9. (2) Kothari Commission 10. (3) Dr. P.D.Shukla 11. (c) 1, 2 and 3 12. (3) Prof. Anil Kakodkar 13. (4) None of these 14. (4) Dr. P.B.Gajendragadkar 15. (2) Delhi 16. (4) Association of Indian Universities 17. (2) 16 18. (3) State Universities 19. (3) Visitors and Chancellor 20. (3) 1988 21. (2) To maintain standards in colleges of education 22. (3) 1961 23. (2) Bengaluru 24. (3) Educational Planning 25. (3) Learning without burden

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (3) Kothari Commission 2. 1. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v) 3. 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. 2. 53 5. 3. Course work 6. (2) (b), (c) and (d) 7. (3) (a), (b) and (d) 8. (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 9. (3) Learning : The Treasure Within 10. (3) New Delhi 11. (2) (a), (b) and (c) 12. (not in options so Ans – 9) 13. (B) Uttar Pradesh 14. (B) 1, 2 and 4 15. (D) NUEPA 16. (A) 1, 2 and 3 17. (B) Delhi University 18. (C) 1, 2 and 3 19. (B) Consortium for Educational Communication 20. (C) Participatory experience 21. (D) Tamil Nadu 22. (A) Distance Education Council (DEC) 23. (B) 1 and 2 24. (D) 4 only 25. (D) 3 and 4 26. (D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities. 27. (B) 07 28. (A) Andhra Pradesh 29. (C) the University Grants Commission 30. (C) AICTE 31. (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) 32. (B) NCTE and NAAC 33. (B) ensure increase in student enrollment in higher education 34. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation. 35. (A) Education and National Development

Chapter 4: Oriental, Conventional & Non-conventional learning programmes

MCQ

1. (3) 24 x 7 online store house of all academic awards  2.  (3) Global Initiatives for Academic Networks 3. (3) Both (1) and (2)  4. (1) 2017  5. (1) Improve the employment of educated youth  6. (4) None of these 7. (3) Higher Educational Institutions adopt and develop rural areas 8. (1) Achieving 80% literacy  9. (1) Technical Education 10. (1) National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning 11. (3) 32 DTH Channel 12. (3) Telecast high-quality educated programmes

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (3) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

Chapter 5: Professional, Technical and Skill Based Education

MCQ

1. (3) The state higher education institution 2. (4) 75:25 between centre and state 3. (3) State Institute of Educational Management and Training 4. (1) To enhance enrollment and attendance of children in school from improving their nutrition. 5. (3) National University of Educational Planning and Administration

Chapter 6: Value  Education 

MCQ

1. (3) Both (1) and (2) 2. (1) a b c d 3. (1). Ethics  4. (1) Brotherhood 5. (3) Both (1) and (2)  6. (4) Character building  7. (3) In a week one/two period of moral instruction 8. (4) The National Curriculum Framework for School Education (2000) 9. (3) Sri Prakasa Committee Report 1959 10.(1) Birth

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (1) The moral values 2. (1) Good citizen

Chapter 7: Environmental Education

MCQ

1.  (3) Both (a) and (2)   2.  (2) Envirous    3.  (2) Ecological system causes and effect the relationship     4.  (4) All of the above 5.  (1) Inter-disciplinary   6. (1) To know and understand true aspects of the environment in general 7. (1) Life saving process

Chapter 8: Governance, Polity and Administration

MCQ

1. (3) 1946 2. (3) 26 November 1949 3. (1) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 4. (1) First Schedule 5. (1) Government of India Act, 1935 6. (2) 42nd Amendment 7. (1) 6 8. (2) Articles 12-35 9. (1) By approaching the Supreme Court, who will issue writs against the authority 10. (3) Fundamental Duties 11. (2) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy 12. (2) Rajya Sabha 13. (2) Matters of utmost importance are raised 14. (1) Uttar Pradesh 15. (2) 12 16. (4) Six months 17. (3) English and Hindi both 18. (2) Cabinet 19. (1) Money Bills 20. (4) Prime Minister

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (2) (a), (b) and (c) only 2. (1) (b) and (d) only 3. (4) (a) and (b) only 4. (2) Governor of a State 5. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 6. (2) (b) and (c) 7. (1) (a) and (d) 8. (2) (c) only 9. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 10. (2) (a) and (b) 11. (2) (a) and (d) 12. (2) (b), (c) and (d) 13. (1) The Supreme Court of India 14. (4) (c) only 15. (1) (a), (b) and (c) 16. (2) (a), (b) and (c) 17. (1) (a) and (c) 18. (2) the State List 19. (4) not fixed 20. (1) Maharashtra 21. (1) The President 22. (1) 21st April 23. (A) 1, 3 and 4 24. (C) 1, 3 and 4 25. (B) 6 months 26. (B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty 27. (B) Deputy Chairman 28. (C) Concurrent List 29. (C) Original Jurisdiction 30. (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 . (D) 312, 3 and 4 32. (D) 3 and 4 33. (A) Meghalaya and Mizoram 34. (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 35. (C) Both the arguments are strong. 36. (A) Only argument (I) is strong. 37. (D) 1 and 4 38. (C) The Prime Minister 39. (A) 1 and 4 40. (C) 1 and 2 41. (D) 2 and 3 42. (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies 43. (B) Warren Hastings 44. (B) 1, 2 and 4 45. (D) To preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country. 46. (D) Finance Secretary of Government of India 47. (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 48. (C) The Election Commission of India 49. (D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat 50. (C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen 51. (C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government 52. (D) Governor of a State 53. (D) Planning Commission 54 . (B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review. . 55(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament 56. (B) A member of the State Public Service Commission 57. (D) All of the above 58. (C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920. 59. (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 60. (C) English and Hindi both 61. (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats 62. (D) Part IV 63. (A) Article 371 A 64. (D) Judicial Activism

Chapter 8: NET-JRF Miscellaneous Previous Question

Previous Year Question 

1. (A) The Centre for  the  Study  of Developing Societies (CSDS)  2. (A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

People Development and Environment

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Chapter – 1 : Development & Environment

Previous Year’s Answer

1.   (C)  2.   (2)  3.   (1)  4. (2)

Chapter – 2 : Human and Environment Interaction

Previous Year’s Answer

1.  (C) 2. (D)  3.(D) 4.(A) 5. (A) 6.(A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (2) 10. (1)  11.(2)

Chapter – 3 : Environmental issues

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) 2.(C) 3.(C) 4.(*)   5. (C)  6.(C)  7. (A)  8.(A)  9. (B) 10.  (*)  11.(A) 12.(A)   13.  (D) 14. (A)  15. (A) 16.(B) 17.(A) 18. (C) 19.(D)  20.(A) 21.(A)  22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D)  25.  (C) 26.(C) 27. (B)  28.(C)  29. (4) 30. (4) 31.(1) 32.  (2)  33.(1) 34.(1)

For Question No. 4 (*) and 10 (*) – All options are wrong.

(The commonly started range of human hearing is 20 Hz to 20 kHz…..Humans are most sensitive to  (i.e. able to discern at lowest intensity) frequencies between 2,000 and 5,000 Hz.) 

Chapter – 4 : Impacts of Pollutants

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (C)  2. (A) 3.(B) 4. (D)  5.(B) 6. (A) 7.(C)  8. (C) 9.(A) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (2)  15. (3) 16.(3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (1)                

Chapter – 5 : Natural and Energy Resources

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(D)    2. (B)    3.(B)   4. (A)  5. (C)  6. (D)   7.(A)    8. (A)   9. (A)   10.  (A)   11.  (D)  12. (C)  13. (D)   14.  (D)  15.  (B)    16. (D)  17. (A)  18. (C)  19. (4)  20. (1)  21.(2)   22. (B)  23.  (C)           

Chapter – 6 : Natural Hazards and Disasters

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(A)    2. (B)    3.(B)   4. (D)  5. (B)  6. (D)   7.(C)    8. (B)   9. (B)   10.  (A)   11.  (C)   12. (A)  13. (D)   14.  (C)  15.  (A)    16. (D)  17. (A)  18. (A)  19. (C)  20. (D)  21. (D)   22. (D)  23.  (C)             

Chapter – 7 : Legislative Measures and International Agreements on Climate Change

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(D)  2. (A) 3.(D) 4. (C)  5. (C) 6. (A) 7.(B) 8. (4) 9. (1)

Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

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Chapter 1 : Introduction

MCQ

1 (b) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve, and quickly process both quantitative and qualitative data quickly and accurately 2 (d) All of the above 3 (b) Vacuum tubes and valves 4 (b) Input is never converted to digital form 5 (c) Resembles both a digital and analogue computer 6 (a) First generation 7 (d) Fourth generation 8 (b) Vacuum tube 9 (d) Super computer 10 (d) UNIVAC  11 (b) Motherboard 12 (b) Magnetic or optical

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (d) Mother Board 2 (c) Software 3 (a) Information society 4 (a) National Mission on Education through ICT

Chapter 2 : Number System

MCQ

1 (b) 0-9, A-F 2 (a) 11110001 3 (b) 2 (power) 30 bytes 4 (a) Byte  5 (a) Terabyte 6 (d) 1024 megabytes 7 (d) No one of the above 8 (c) 4 byte 9 (c) Binary digit 10 (c) 4 11 (b) 10111

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (a) Terabyte 2 (b) binary digit 3 (d) 16  4 (b) 10111  5 (b) 0 – 9 , A – F 6 (a) 11110001  7 (b) 2 (power) 30 bytes  8 (a) 0 – 7 9 (b) 11101101 10 (a) (1111)2  11(d) 10  12 (d) (17)10 = (10001)2  13 (a) 1024 Megabytes 14 (c) Hexadecimal number system 15 (a) 100011 16 (c) Gigabyte 17 (c) 11001 18 (b) 8 bits 19 (a) 110011 20 (a) 250 21 (b) S2 only 22 (b) Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases 23 (d) Gigabytes

 

Chapter 3 : Computer Organization

MCQ

1 (d) All of the above 2 (c) Microprocessors 3 (a) Hard disks 4 (d) Central processing unit 5 (c) Control unit, arithmetic logic unit, and primary storage 6 (a) Arithmetic Logic Unit 7 (b) Control section 8 (c) Arithmetic logic unit 9 (c) Read-only memory chip 10 (b) Registers 11 (b) ASCII code 12 (c) American Standard Code for Information Interchange 13 (c) Computer Disk Read only Memory  14 (c) Compact disk rewritable 15 (b) Faster and more expensive 16 (b) RAM 17 (c) Floppy diskette 18 (b) RAM 19 (a) Electronically erasable programmable Read-Only memory 20 (a) Magnetic Ink Character Reader 21 (a) OCR 22 (a) Dot per inch 23 (b) voice response unit 24 (a) Input 25(b) Plotter

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (b) Memory 2 (b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange 3 (b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange 4 (b) Sectors  5 (c) an illusion of extremely large main memory  6 (c) Monitor  7 (c) Monitor 8 (c) ROM (Read Only Memory)  9 (c) ROM (Read Only Memory)  10 (b) Volatile   11 (c) Universal Serial Bus

Chapter 4 : Computer Software

MCQ

1  (d) All of the  2 (b) Freeware 3 (c) PASCAL  4 (c) High level  5 (b) Assembler  6 (b) Assembler  7 (c) Compiler  8 (a) Interpreter 9 (d) Glitch 10 (c) Bugs 11(b) Real time

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (b) Compiler 2 (b) Microsoft Office   3 (d) Interpreter 4 (b) high level language to machine language  5 (a) Internet explorer  6 (c) Mozilla Firefox

Chapter 5 : Operating System

MCQ

1 (c) Program 2 (b) Utility software 3 (c) Operating system 4 (b) Toolbar 5 (c) Modifier 6 (b) Which is assigned one and only one task 7 (b) Application software 8 (b) Multi-programming  9( b) Magnetic or optical

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (d) Microsoft  2 (a) Google 3 (b) Operation system 4 (c) COS is smart card operating system 5 (b) Android  6 (c) Browser 7 (d) Firefox  8 (a) Information Technology (IT)

Chapter 6 : Ms-Windows and Ms-Dos

MCQ

1 (c) Formula translation 2 (c) Desktop publishing 3 (b) Database 4 (b) Dumb terminal 5 (c) .wav 6 (c) .xls 7 (a) Extensible Markup Language

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (b) Water marking 2 (d) GUI 3 (c) .docx 4 (d) Graphics Interchange Format 5 (b) ROM 6 (a) Cascading Style Sheets 7 (b) image data 8 (d) Mail merge 9 (a) Burning 10 (c)  Mail merge

Chapter 7 : Data Communication and Networking

MCQ

1 (b) Renren 2 (c) Data 3 (a) PARAM  4 (c) Semiconductors 5 (a) Terminal 6 (d) Modem converts analogue signals into digital and vice versa 7 (a) Educational or .edu 8 (a) IBroadcast  9 (d) Real-time video  10 (a) analogue to digital 11 (c) HTTP 12 (b) Internet Relay Chat  13 (a) Web browser

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (c) Hutchison 2 (c) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal  3 (d)  www.u.k.singlemuslim.com 4 (b) Binary Tree  5 (d) CPU  6  (d) Infotech India Ltd 7 (a) Hyper Text Markup Language  8 (a) Hyper Text Markup Language 9 (c) web page 10 (d) POP 11 (a) Internet society  12 (a) LAN  13 (c) Participatory experience  14 (c) Participatory experience 15 (a) File Transfer Protocol 16 (a) File Transfer Protocol 17 (c) Massive Open Online Course 18 (c) Encryption 19 (d) Google Talk  20 (d) A, B and C 21 (b) I and III only 22 (b) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol 23 (b) Neither I nor II 24 (c) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage 25 (c) Digital Versatile Disc

Chapter 8 : Fundamental of Internet

MCQ

1 (a) Blogs and Wikis  2 (d) World Wide Web 3 (c) Computers that arc all linked together in a network 4 (b) www@ mail.com 5 (a) Webpage 6 (a) SMTP 7 (c) URL 8 (c) Browsers 9 (b) Second Life 10 (a) Cyber venting 11 (b) Modem 12 (b) .org 13 (d) All of the above 14 (b) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol 15 (d) All of the above 16 (a) Microsoft 17 (d) All of the above 18 (a) Educational institution 19 (b) Uniform Resource Locators 20 (c) Drupal

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (d) all of the above 2 (c) IP address 3 (a) Secure Multipurpose Mail Extension Internet 4 (b) Domain Name System 5 (a) Domain Name System 6 (c) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address 7 (c) Internet 8 (c) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email 9 (c)  world wide web 10 (b) netiquette  11 (c) Webmercials 12 (b) Military purposes 13 (d) Twitter 14 (c) World Wide Web 15 (c)  202.50.20.148 16 (b) Chrome 17 (d) Spam 18 (b) Web Browser 19 (c) Blind Computer Communication :- The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how blind people get e-mail 20 (b) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online 21 (d) URL 22 (d) .com

Logical Reasoning

Chapter – 1

1.(E) 2.(A) 3.(B) 4.(A) 5.(A) 6.(A) 7.(E) 8.(B) 9.(A) 10.(B) 11.(E) 12.(B) 13.(E) 14.(A) 15.(A) 16.(B) 17.(E) 18.(E) 19.(A) 20.(C) 21.(C) 22.(B) 23.(E) 24.(A)

Chapter – 2

1.(D) 2.(A) 3.(E) 4.(B) 5.(D) 6.(D) 7.(D) 8.(E) 9.(B) 10.(B) 11.(D) 12.(D) 13.(D) 14.(E) 15.(B) 16.(D) 17.(C) 18.(B) 19.(C) 20.(B) 21.(D) 22.(A) 23.(B) 24.(B) 25.(E)

Chapter- 3

1.(D) 2.(B) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(C) 6.(A) 7.(E) 8.(B) 9.(B) 10.(A) 11.(A) 12.(A) 13.(C) 14.(E) 15.(B) 16.(B) 17.(D) 18.(B) 19.(A) 20.(A) 21.(B) 22.(B) 23.(D) 24.(C) 25.(B)

Chapter – 4

1.(E) 2.(B) 3.(A) 4.(D) 5.(E) 6.(B) 7.(A) 8.(B) 9.(E) 10.(B) 11.(A) 12.(A) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(E) 16.(E) 17.(B) 18.(E) 19.(E) 20.(A) 21.(B) 22.(A) 23.(B) 24.(D) 25. (A)

Chapter – 5

1.(A) 2.(A) 3.(A) 4.(E) 5.(A) 6.(B) 7.(E) 8.(E) 9.(D) 10.(B) 11.(D) 12.(C) 13.(A) 14.(A) 15.(B) 16.(D) 17.(B) 18.(C) 19.(D) 20.(A) 21.(B) 22.(B) 23.(D) 24.(D) 25. (C)

Chapter – 6

1.(1) 2.(1) 3.(2) 4.(4) 5.(2) 6.(1) 7.(1) 8.(3) 9.(2) 10.(1) 11.(1) 12.(3) 13.(1) 14.(2) 15.(5) 16.(2) 17.(1) 18.(1) 19.(3) 20.(1) 21.(4) 22.(2) 23.(2) 24.(4) 25.(1) 26.(1) 27.(3) 28.(3) 29.(1) 30.(4) 31.(1) 32.(5) 33.(3) 34.(1) 35.(3) 36.(1) 37.(5) 38.(3) 39.(4) 40.(3)

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Data Interpretation

Pie Chart

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A)  6. (D)  7. (E)  8. (C)  9. (C)  10. (A)  11. (E)  12. (A)  13. (D) 14. (A)  15. (B)  16. (D)  17.  (A) 18. (E)  19. (D)  20. (D)  21. (A)  22. (A)  23. (B)  24. (C)  25. (E) 

Line Chart

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D)  6. (D)  7. (A)  8. (B)  9. (B)  10. (D)  11. (B)  12. (C)  13. (A) 14. (B)  15. (C)  16. (B)  17.  (D) 18. (E)  19. (A)  20. (E)  21. (B)  22. (E)  23. (C)  24. (D)  25. (A) 

Bar Chart

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B)  6. (E)  7. (A)  8. (B)  9. (B)  10. (D)  11. (E)  12. (E)  13. (A) 14. (D)  15. (B)  16. (B)  17.  (B) 18. (B)  19. (C)  20. (D)  21. (C)  22. (C)  23. (B) 24. (D)  25. (C) 

Tubular

1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)  6. (D)  7. (D)  8. (B)  9. (C)  10. (D)  11. (A)  12. (A)  13. (A) 14. (C)  15. (C)  16. (C)  17.  (C) 18. (D)  19. (A)  20. (B)  21. (A)  22. (E)  23. (A)  24. (D)  25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (A)

Mixed

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (E) 5. (A)  6. (D)  7. (E)  8. (C)  9. (D)  10. (E)  11. (B)  12. (D)  13. (C) 14. (A)  15. (E)  16. (E)  17.  (B) 18. (C)  19. (A)  20. (C)  21. (B)  22. (A)  23. (E)  24. (A)  25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (D)

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Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Chapter 1 : Alphabet

Practice Set

1 (e) O, M 2 (c) K 3 (d) N 4 (a) E 5 (b) E 6 (a) 2 7 (d) 6 8 (a) More than three 9 (a) One 10 (c) 3 11 (d) I 12 (a) P 13 (c) D 14 (b) W 15 (b) V 16 (a) T 17 (b) 11 18 (d) Three 19 (d) 2 20 (d) 3 21 (c) Two 22 (a) 1 23 (a) S 24 (d) P 25 (b) T 26 (c) Three 27 (c) R 28 (a) Actuate

UGC NET Previous Year
1 (B) 2 (B) 3 (B) 4 (A) 5 (A) 6 (D) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 (B) 10 (B)

Chapter 2: Direction

Practice Set

1 (d) South-West 2 (b) 2 km 3 (a) East 4 (d) 45 m East 5 (a) 65 km 6 (a) 32 m, South 7 (b) South 8 (e) South-West 9 (b) South 10 (b) North-east 11 (a) West-3V3 12 (c) South-West 13 (c) North 14 (b) South 15 (a) North 16 (c) South 17 (b) South 18 (c) South-East 19 (d) West 20 (c) North-west 21 (b) South 22 (d) North-east 23 (b) South east 24 (c) South-East 25 (d) South-East 26 (c) North-east 27 (a) East 28 (b) South-East 29 (d) Pintu 30 (a) 215 m

UGC NET Previous Year
1 (B) 2 (D) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (D) 6 (A)

Chapter 3 : Blood Relation

Practice Set

1 (d) Brother-in-law 2 (a) Sister-in-law 3 (b) Wife 4 (d) Father 5 (d) Granddaughter 6 (c) Niece 7 (d) F 8 (a) Nephew 9 (d) Daughter 10 (a) Daughter-in-law 11 (c) Aunt 12 (b) Niece 13 (d) Mother 14 (a) Brother-in-law 15 (d) Brother 16 (c) Mother 17 (c) Cousin/Brother 18 (c) Daughter 19 (a) Grandson

UGC NET Previous Year

1 (D) 2 (B) 3 (D) 4 (B) 5 (A) 6 (C) 7 (C) 8 (A) 9 (C) 10 (C)

Chapter 4 : Series & Missing Number

Practice Set

1 (c) 82 2 (b) 212 3 (c) 617 4 (a) SUW 5 (c) XYzB 6 (b) tmhmtlm 7 (d) EKR 8 (a) Line 9 (b) Roots 10 (c) E, U 11 (d) 0.008 12 (c) 81 13 (b) MPO 14 (b) ThSg 15 (c) 21 16 (c) 32, 38 17 (a) mssxn 18 (c) YZXZ 19 (a) q q p q p q p 20 (a) 0.25 21 (b) FK 22 (d) F 23 (d) 13, 10 24 (b) RQR 25 (c) 67 26 (c) ONM 27 (b) 31240 28 (d) 102 29 (b) NIK 30 (a) WVTS 31 (a) 407 32 (c) WXV 33 (c) 31 34 (d) tstttr 35 (a) 172 36 (b) UX 37 (a) 47 38 (c) VIJ 39 (d) 568 40 (a) I H J I 41 (b) 99 42 (d) LUP 43 (c) 515 44 (a) zyxkx 45 (c) 193 46 (a) FXV 47 (b) 356 48 (a) LKJ 49 (a) 49 50 (c) NLO 51 (c) 66 52 (c) LPP 53 (c) 11 54 (d) DKR 55 (b) 60 56 (c) Petrol 57 (c) 355 58 (c) EFH 59 (d) GT 60 (d) CRCRQ 61 (c) Tokyo Olympics 62 (c) 342 63 (c) TW 64 (d) WT 65 (d) npomp 66 (a) Mahatma Gandhi 67 (a) LN 68 (b) JJ 69 (d) 3805 70 (c) LKJM 71 (a) Pentane 72 (a) A 73 (c) XY 74 (a) 4 75 (c) DCED 76 (c) 56 77 (b) EJO

UGC NET Previous Year

1 (C) 2 (B) 3 (B) 4 (B) 5 (B) 6 (D) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 (D) 10 (B) 11 (A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (A) 15 (B) 16 (A) 17 (C) 18 (C) 19 (C) 20 (A)

Chapter 5 : Coding & Decoding

Practice Set

1 (c) MFZQROB 2 (b) 321846 3 (b) HSTQO 4 (b) RLANEADC 5 (a) 2197 6 (c) IUOBSH 7 (a) 66 8 (d) VJBGQ 9 (b) XUJBG 10 (d) 50 11 (a) GSPH 12 (d) TGXGCN 13 (d) HQFZUMFRT 14 (d) 821795 15 (d) AJYKP 16 (d) EOKY 17 (b) WOLLIP 18 (a) BNQQDBS 19 (b) SFHJU 20 (b) 31 21 (a) 78 22 (b) PQRABKQ 23 (b) 32 24 (c) OLCUDS 25 (a) ZMJNBG 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (b) 758897 29 (a) AMSLR

UGC NET Previous Year

1 (C) SPETS  2 (D)  Earth 3 (D) ECNARDNIH 4 (B) 37  5 (A) 2 6 (B) COBY 7 (B)  Moped 8 (C)  Point 9 (C) 9 10 (A) 3 11 (A) AMSLR 12 (D) 93.20 13 (A) UJHFS 14 (A) QRUWK 15 (B) EJKNFTGP 16 (C) OMESICEM 17 (B) MPQYLDCFD 18 (B) ELQBIP 19 (A)  YKCPGAYLQ 20 (D) BSILOALCOIG 21 (D)    SEINCPAMO 22 (C)  SMOPIEACN  23 (D) LQOOFZH 24 (A) YENG 25  (A) 6 26 (B) 1677209

Chapter 6 : VENN Diagram

Practice Set
1 (c) 2 (a) 15 3 (b) 36 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (a) 11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (b) 2 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (a) 21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (b)

UGC NET Previous Year
1 (C) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (A) 5 (A) 6 (C) 7 (C) 8 (B) 9 (A) 10 (C) 11 (C) 12 (B) 13 (D)

Chapter 7: Analogy

Practice Set
1 (c) ORK 2 (d) ORUX 3 (b) GTHS 4 (d) 31 5 (a) 8 6 (a) 6 7 (b) Sin 8 (c) Difficulty 9 (c) Cat : Mouse 10 (c) ZAY 11 (b) WYA 12 (b) English 13 (c) Fermentation 14 (a) RSU 15 (d) 82 16 (d) YOU 17 (c) HLPS 18 (a) decibel 19 (c) computers 20 (b) 343 21 (b) 210 22 (b) Humble 23 (a) gsfti 24 (c) 13 25 (c) Defeat 26 (d) ALV 27 (a) 748 28 (d) Patient 29 (a) NRV 30 (c) 342 31 (b) Kilogram 32 (b) DFUW 33 (c) 82 34 (c) Horse 35 (c) RPNL 36 (d) 350 37 (a) Pond 38 ( ) 39 (b) 336 40 (b) Injury 41 (b) WYXV 42 (d) 84 43 (a) Birds 44 (d) NRPT 45 (b) 968 46 (c) Coos 47 (a) BGL 48 (a) 49 49 (b) Mycology 50 (a) UQMI 51 (b) 36 52 (b) Musician 53 (c) GJMP 54 (b) 378 55 (d) Past 56 (b) NMOP 57 (b) 6 58 (d) Telescope 59 (a) FHJL 60 (c) 216 61 (d) Kennel 62 (b) EGJN 63 (b) 49 64 (b) Hero 65 (c) YACE 66 (d) Ornithology 67 (b) BYWD 68 (b) 132 69 (c) Boat 70 (c) RQPO 71 (d) 257 72 (c) Indian 73 (a) STVX 74 (b) 18 75 (c) QS 76 (a) Protozoa 77 (d) W 78 (b) 9 79 (c) Ganga 80 (b) LM 81 (b) KN 82 (a) 98 83 (d) Mahatma Gandhi 84 (c) TERSTOA 85 (c) IHTESEV 86 (c) 492 87 (d) Basketball 88 (b) NCPIWCIG 89 (c) RDLDRSDQ 90 (c) Boxing : Ring 91 (b) ORES 92 (d) 27 93 (c) Arm

UGC NET Previous Year
1 (C) 2 (A) 3 (D) 4 (D) 5 (B) 6 (D) 7 (D)

Communication

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Chapter 1 : Communication: Meaning, Objectives, Aims and Characteristics

MCQ

1 (A) Latin 2 (D)  All of these 3 (D) All of the above 4 (A) Information among higher to lower 5 (A) Grapevine 6 (D) All of the above 7 (4) Horizontal communication 8 (D) Communication among equal 9 (C) Communication 10 (C) Specify the objectives of communication

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (D) Telepathy is technological 2. (A) Sign, symbols, codes, colours 3 (C) Social environment 4 (A) Communis and Communicare 5(B) Informal 6. (C) Imprecise 7. (D) Fourth Estate 8 (2) Informal communication 9 (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 10 (4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct 11. (1) Horizontal communication

Chapter 2 : Process of Communication

MCQ

1 (C) Source 2 (2) Encoding 3 (2) Feedback 4 (3) Produce messages 5 (2) Process 6 (1) Source, message, interference, channel, receiver, feedback, and context 7 (C) Decoding 8 (C) Lack of confidence 9 (D) Physical obstructions 10 (B) Gestures 11 (B) Semantic noise

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (A) The decoder becomes an encoder 2 (D) Source, message, channel, receiver 3 (D) coding ability 4 (C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect 5 (A) Linear communication 6 (D) Feedback 7 (1) Moralizing, being judgemental and comments of consolation 8 (1) Message 9 (3) Information acquisition and its processing 10 (4) (a), (b) and (d) Only

Chapter 3 : Principles of Communication

MCQ

1 (B) 3 4 2 1 2 (3) Understood by receiver and produces the desired response 3 (1) A good communicator cannot be a good teacher 4 (2) He/she helps students get meaning our of what he/she teaches 5 (4) All of the above 6 (1) open and sincere

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (D) Sub-text  2 (B) Communicator 3 (B) Perceptions 4 (1) (a), (b), (c)  and (d) 5 (3) One-way transfer of information 6 (4) Understanding  7 (4) Ice-breaker 8. (4) (a), (d) and (e)  9. (4) receiver does not understand the meaning of the message

Chapter 4 : Forms of Communication

MCQ

1 (B) Multiadic communication  2 (B) Conversing with spirits and ancestors 3 (D) To provide relaxation 4 (A) Conviction 5 (1) Mediated intrapersonal communication 6 (C) High unit cost to consumers of messages 7 (D)  All of the above 8 (1) Intra-group  

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (3) Parallel communication  2 (B) Inter-personal 3 (B) Abstract 4 (A) Static 5 (C) encoding  6 (D) Intrapersonal communication 7 (A) Transpersonal communication 8 (A) Mass line communication 9 (C)  Group communication 10 (B) Mass communication 11 (C) Utilitarian 12 (3) Non-verbal messages 13 (3) Substitute function 14 (3) Unstructured 15 (4) Transcendental communication 16 (3) The dress code followed by a individual  17 (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Chapter 5 : Verbal Skills

MCQ

1 (D) All of these 2 (A) A situation in which the sender and the receiver exchange information 3 (C) Is Very clear about what one communicates 4 (B) Enculturation 5 (A) Listening 6 (4) All of the above 7 (1) Plentiful of information 8 (B) The audience needs to be informed about the product, scenario or concept time and again, lest they should forget it altogether 9 (C) Verbal and non-verbal receiver responses 10 (1) Communicator should have fine sense

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (B) the verbal code 2 (D) Both (A) and (R) are false 3 (C) convenient structure 4 (B) Contradiction 5 (1) The verbal code 6 (3) Para language   7 (3) Encoder’s personality characteristics 

Chapter 6 : How to Conduct Oral Communication

MCQ

1 (A) Dyadic communication 2 (B) Painting  3 (A) to another person and vice versa 4 (A) Radio is an audio media 5 (A) TV is a visual media 6 (C) Receiver 7 (C) satellite

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (C) Video conference 2 (A) Networked media 3 (D) Conviction 4 (C) Audio-Visual two way 5 (D) Communitarian 6 (B) Active audience 7 (D) Information theory 8 (2) Anticipatory excitement 

Chapter 7 :  Classroom Communication

MCQ

1 (2) Emblem  2 (4) The student themselves

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation 2 (B) Edutainment 3 (C) cognitive 4 (A) non-pervasive treasure 5 (B) Edutainment 6 (D) Discourse 7 (B) Decoders 8 (4)  Mind mapping 9 (4) eye contact 10 (2) Voice modulation 11 (3) Adoption of well-established posture 12 (4) Noise 13 (4) Power, structure and tradition 14 (3) Artful pauses 15 (1) Social identity 16 (4) Persuasion 17 (3) Factual 18 (1) Cognitive load in understanding 19 (2) Empathetic  20 (1) Establishing a viewpoint 21 (4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)  22 (3) (A) is false, but (R) is true 23 (2) Selective attention 24 (2) (A) is true, but (R) is false 25 (2) Inter-personal dynamics 26 (2) (A) is true, but (R) is false 27 (1) (a), (b) and (c) 28 (2) (a), (b) and (d) 29 (3) Inter-personal communication 30 (1) Non-technical medium 31 (3) (a),(b) and (e)

Chapter 8 : The Art of Listening

MCQ

1 (1) Listening 2 (4) All of the above 3 (3) Verbal or non-verbal responses to a message 4 (2) Process complex information and then categorize it 5 (1) May be a complex process involving many steps 6 (3) Can be verbal or non-verbal 7 (1) Paraphrase the speaker’s meaning 8 (4) Confirming one’s understanding of a message 9 (4) All of the above 10 (B) If he listens to the other person carefully, he would be able to understand his viewpoint with case and thus send his message to him accordingly.

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (C) receptivity 2 (4) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended questions 3 (4) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

Chapter 9 : Body Language

MCQ

1 (C) SMS 2 (4) Kinesics 3 (1) Displays 4 (A) 4 3 2 1 5 (2) Interpersonal communication 6 (3) Attractive personality of the speaker 7 (1) Message 8 (D) Typed symbols that communicate facial expressions 9 (2) Emblem 10 (D) All of these 10 (4) Important for a listener to understand

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (1) Proximity, utility, loneliness 2 (3) Adoption of well-established posture 

Chapter 10 : Mass Media and Society

MCQ

1 (C) Guttenberg press 2 (B) audio-visual media 3 (C) audio-visual media 4 (B) In the parlance of Internet operations, it refers to the receipt of pornographic and other socially irrelevant messages in an E-mail box 5 (C) September, 1959; Delhi 6 (B) In 1982 7 (D) all the above 8 (A) only one internet connection is needed and other nodes of the network can use it 9 (B) Internet web sites 10 (C) Television 11 (D) Increased communication

UGC NET Previous Year Questions

1 (D) Lok Sabha channel 2 (B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction 3 (C) Japan 4 (D) television 5 (C) Film 6 (C) Serveillance  7 (D) Photocolour adjustment 8 (A) English 9 (A) 4 : 3  10 (C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment 11 (B) 1936 12 (B) PAL 13 (D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity 14 (D) Television Rating Points 15 (A) The Times of India 16 (D) Dada Saheb Phalke 17 (B) James Augustus Hicky 18 (D) UNESCO 19 (A) Reality 20 (C) Hindustan Samachar 21 (D) Gulzar 22 (C) decode 23 (C) snow 24 (B) sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers 25 (D)(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 26 (1) Capital intensive

Comprehension

June – 2019 (Management)

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (2) At introduction  2.  (3) Third  3.  (2) The level of innovative energy weakens 4. (1) Ignore the original product 5. (4) Start up stage

June – 2019 (Commerce)

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(3) The level of complexity is missing 2.(1) They lose the message   3.(4) Before speaking   4.(2) A habit  5.(4) Involuntary

December – 2018 (Management)

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(4)  Private ownership of airports does not mean efficient management  2.(1)  For necessary capital   3.(3) Avoid structures of confused incentives to managers  4.(2) (a), (b) and (c)  5.(3) 40 percent

December – 2018 (Commerce)

Previous Year’s Answer

1.  (1) Motivations like justice and public spirit   2.(4) Respect for sensible rules of conduct 3.(4) Pro-active move to support others 4.(4) Nonsensical  5.(2) For being fair to others

July – 2018

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(3) (a), (c) and (d)  2. (1) Pervasive use of technology  3. (2)  (b), (c) and (d) only 4. (4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity  5. (4) Development of core technological strengths

November – 2017

Previous Year’s Answer

1. (A) (a), (b) and (c)  2. (A) (a), (c) and (d)  3. (B) Implementation of national adaptation policy at their level 4.(C) Synergy between government and local interventions 5.(C) Adaptation to climate change

January – 2017

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence  2. (B) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World  3.(D) They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage 4. (C) Great agony of partition 5.(B) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions

August – 2016

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(4) Company longevity  2.(2) Financial returns from each new film 3. (3) Little expectation of retaining them 4.(3)  Participation in the current project 5.(3) Because of short time horizons 6.(2) Mentoring

June – 2016

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) Japan 2.(C) Because of new competitors 3.(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities 4.(C) Superior knowledge 5.(A) Global financial flow 6.(D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

December – 2015

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(A) A state of confusion 2.(D) Reading 3. (B) (a) and (b) only 4.(4) 100  5.(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting

June – 2015

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(C) a few stories that survive  2.(D) the essence of what makes us human 3.(A) We collectively choose to believe in 4.(A) (a), (b) and (c)  5.(A) They work in large groups 6.(A) Follow Midway Path

December – 2014

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(C) Novel with its own politics 2.(B) Writer’s perception 3.(B) Ideas and Ideologies 4.(D) Felt reality of human life 5.(A) Unseen felt ideas of today in the novel

June – 2014

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical , economic and political sense 2.(B)  Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point of time 3.(A) No discrimination on religious considerations 4.(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance 5.(D) Absence of Bigotry

December – 2013

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(A) After the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property 2.(B) Imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise  3.(C) Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation 4.(B) 11 percent 5.(B) (i), (ii), (iv) 6.(D) Indian National Trust fro Art and Culture Heritage

September – 2013

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year 2.(A) (i), (iii) 3.(B) She did not associate with any political party 4.(B) Leftist 5.(D) 1989-2001 6.(D) All the above

June – 2013

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) Makrana 2.(D) European Travellers 3.(C) The Taj Mahal is surronded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh 4.(D)  Rauza-i-Munavvara 5.(C) 1632-1643 A.D. 6.(A) Farman

December – 2012

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) Negative  2.(A) 30 Million  3.(A) How well the situation has been managed 4.(A) Tempo of urbanization 5.(C) Analytical Reasoning 6.(D) The limits of growth

June – 2012

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(A) By acquiring knowledge 2.(A) Enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process  3.(B) As an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government 4.(C) Recognizing judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit 5.(D) All the above 6.(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

December – 2011

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(D) Inordinate development  2.(A) What is  3.(D) Enlightened rationalism 4.(A) Restoration of normal vision 5.(D) Optional 6.(B) Matter is energy

June – 2011

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(A) The chosen texts of his own 2.(D) Habitual interpretation 3.(D)  Cosmological beliefs 4.(D) Belief that power and its exercise matter 5.(D) Intellectual history 6.(D) The mirror image of philistinism

December – 2010

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement 2.(D) Psychological 3.(B) Voice of the Indian people 4.(B) Reach the heart of Indians 5.(A) Objective conditions of masses 6.(C) Pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi

June – 2010

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(C) Cultural perception 2.(B) Preparation of mental images  3.(C) An idea expressed in language form 4.(C) Reflective 5.(C) A celestial Body 6.(B) A conceived idea

December – 2009

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(C) I.N.A Trials  2.(C) Threat to persons fighting for the freedom 3.(D) Indian National Army  4.(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled 5.(B) Muslims 6.(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity

June – 2009

Previous Year’s Answer

1.(B) People were isolated from political affairs  2.(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people 3.(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine 4.(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian Society 5.(D) Merchants and artisans

 

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Teaching Aptitude

CHAPTER – 1: THE CONCEPT OF TEACHING

Previous Year Question

1C      2A    3B    4D    5C     6C    7C    8A    9C    10D    11B    12D    13C    14D    15C    16A    17A     18C    19D    20C    21C

 

CHAPTER – 2: THE TEACHER’S & LEARNER’S CHARACTERISTICS

Previous Year Question

1C    2D     3D     4C     5D     6C     7B     8D     9A     10A    11B     12A    13B    14B    15C     16C     17C     18C     19B    20B    21A     22B    23D    24C    25B    26C    27C    28D    29A    30B   31C    32C    33A   34C    35A     36D    37B    38B     39B    40B     41D    42D    43D    44C   45D   46D    47D   48D    49B    50D    51D     52B    53B     54C    55B    56C    57A    58A   59D   60D   61B    62A    63B    64C     65B   66D    67B   68C   69D   70B   71A   72B   73A    74C   75C    76C    77A

 

CHAPTER – 3: THE METHODS OF TEACHING

Previous Year Question

1C   2C    3B   4A    5B    6A    7B    8A    9B    10D     11B    12D     13D    14B    15D     16C    17C, D   18C    19D    20C    21C    22A    23D     24C    25D     26C

 

CHAPTER – 4: TEACHER SUPPORT MATERIALS

Previous Year Question

1D 2A 3D 4A 5B 6C 7C 8C 9D 10C 11B 12D 13B

 

CHAPTER – 5: EVALUATION SYSTEMS

Previous Year Question

1D 2D 3C 4C 5B 6D 7B 8D 9A 10C 11D 12D

 

 

 

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Research Aptitude

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Research Aptitude

Chapter 1 : Research : Meaning, Types & Methods

Previous Years’ Answer

1C   2D   3B   4A   5A   6A   7B   8C    9A    10D    11B    12B    13A    14D   15D    16D    17A    18D    19B   20D     21D   22B     23D     24D      25C     26C     27C     28D      29B     30C      31C     32A     33A     34C     35D    36B     37A    38B    39B     40D     41A     42A     43D      44D     45C     46C      47C    48B     49B     50C    51C

Chapter 2 : Research Paradigms

Previous Years’ Answer

No Question

Chapter 3 : Research Process

Previous Years’ Answer

1A     2D      3D     4C     5D      6C      7A      8D      9B       10A      11D      12B        13B         14C

Chapter 4 : Sampling Design

Previous Years’ Answer

1B     2C      3B     4D      5D      6B      7D      8B       9D

Chapter 5 : Data Collection

Previous Years’ Answer

1D      2A      3C      4D        5A

Chapter 6 : Data Analysis

Previous Years’ Answer

1B     2B      3A      4A      5D        6A*       7D        8A        9A       10C       11B       12B

 

* Phenomenology is the study of experience and the ways in which things present themselves in and through experience.

 

Chapter 7 : Research Report

Previous Years’ Answer

1C     2D     3D     4B      5D      6C      7B      8D      9D      10A       11D       12C       13C       14A         15A        16C       17D

Chapter 8 : Styles of Referencing

Previous Years’ Answer

1B      2A      3A     4B

Chapter 9 : Applications of ICT in Research

Previous Years’ Answer

No Questions

Chapter 10 : Research Ethics

Previous Years’ Answer

1B     2B     3B     4A     5C     6B      7D     8D

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