| Unit | Paper Name | No.of Questions |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Business Environment and International Business | 10 |
| 2 | Accounting and Auditing | 10 |
| 3 | Business Economics | 10 |
| 4 | Business Finance | 10 |
| 5 | Business Statistics and Research Methods | 10 |
| 6 | Business Management and Human Resource Management | 10 |
| 7 | Banking and Financial Institutions | 10 |
| 8 | Marketing Management | 10 |
| 9 | Legal Aspects of Business | 10 |
| 10 | Income-tax and Corporate Tax Planning | 10 |
| Total No. of question | 100 |
Cut – off list – UGC NET | JRF Commerce
| Year | Category | JRF – % | JRF – No. of Candidates | NET – % | NET – No. of Candidates |
| June 2019 | Unreserved | 68 % | 278 | 60 % | 3183 |
| OBC (NCL) | 63.33 % | 200 | 53.33 % | 2249 | |
| SC | 60.67 % | 66 | 50 % | 889 | |
| ST | 57.33 % | 28 | 48 % | 382 | |
| December 2018 | Unreserved | 62 % | 287 | 54.67 % | 2991 |
| OBC (NCL) | 58 % | 119 | 49.33 % | 1832 | |
| SC | 54.67 % | 68 | 47.33 % | 678 | |
| ST | 54 % | 22 | 46 % | 283 | |
| July 2018 | Unreserved | 64 % | 54.67 % | ||
| OBC (NCL) | 59.33 % | 49.33 % | |||
| SC | 55.33 % | 46. % | |||
| ST | 54.67 % | 45.33 % |
Question Paper Bifurcation of June 2019 Examination
Units: 1 Business Environment and International Business – Questions
- Match List – I with List II
List – I
(a) Fiscal, monetary and industrial policies
(b) Social obligations towards several stakeholders
(c) Consumers, shareholders, suppliers, creditors etc.
(d) Moral principles that defines the right or wrong
List – II
(i) Social responsibilities.
(ii) Stakeholders/interest group
(iii) Business ethics
(iv) Economic policies
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) - Quantitative import restrictions that limit the quantity of a product being imported is called
1. Embargo
2. Quota
3. Trade restraint
4. Import tariff - Which of the following is an instance of non-conventional dumping ?
1. Sporadic dumping
2. Predatory dumping
3. Reverse dumping
4. Persistent dumping - Which of the following is true about India Trade Policy (Export-Import), 2015-2019 ?
(a) Doubling the exports (both merchandise and services)
(b) Achieve 3.5% share in global exports
(c) Introduced two new schemes (MEIS and SEIS)
(d) Introduced simplified Aayat-Niryat Form
Choose the correct answer from the following
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a) and (c) only
3. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. All are correct - Which is the most appropriate mode of entry in international business to an enterprise with little experience of international markets ?
1. Acquisition
2. Strategic Alliance
3. Joint Venture
4. Exporting - Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Trade and Finance Institution)
(a) WTO
(b) IMF
(c) FAO
(d) EU
List – II (Headquarters)
(i) Brussels
(ii) Geneva
(iii) Washington
(iv) Rome
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
4. (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv) - Which among the following institutions is NOT a part of World Bank group ?
1. International Development Association (IDA)
2. International Monetary Found (IMF)
3. International Finance Corporation (IFC)
4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) - After US dollar, which of the following currencies has largest weightage in determining the value of SDR ?
1. Japanese Yen
2. Chinese Yuan (Renminbi)
3. Euro
4. British Pound - One belt, one road initiative (BRI) is NOT intended to
1. Trade protectionism
2. Strengthening logistic and supply chain
3. Improve cost competitiveness
4. Re-balance trade dominance - Redressal mechanism for consumer disputes under Section 9 of the Consumer Protection Act envisages a
1. Single – tier system
2. Two –tier system
3. Three – tier system
4. Open system independent of hierarchy
Unit 2: Accounting and Auditing – Questions
- As per Section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the balance in the Security Premium Account cannot utilized for
(a) Payment of dividend
(b) Writing off discount on issue of shares
(c) Issue of fully paid up bonus share
(d) Capital losses - Redeemable preference shares of Rs 2,00,000 are to be redeemed at par for which fresh equity share of Rs 80, 000 are issued at a discount of 10%. What amount should be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account ?
1. Rs. 2,00,000
2. Rs. 1,20,000
3. Rs. 1,28,000
4. Rs. 72,000 - Which of the following types of goodwill is considered to be the best
1. Dog goodwill
2. Cat goodwill
3. Rat goodwill
4. Cow goodwill - Product A requires 10 kg of material at the rate of Rs.5 per kg. The actual consumption of material for the manufacturing of product A comes to 12 kg of material at the rate of Rs. 6 per kg. Direct material cost variance is
1. Rs. 22 (favourable)
2. Rs. 22 (unfavourable)
3. Rs. 12 (favourable)
4. Rs. 12 (unfavourable) - Following are the steps in the activity-based cost allocation :
(a) Identification of the main activities
(b) Collection of cost pool
(c) Determination of the activity cost drivers
(d) Calculation of activity driver rate
(e) Charging the cost of activities to products
Select the correct sequence of the above steps :
1. (a), (b), (c), (e), (d)
2. (a), (b), (e), (d), (c)
3. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
4. (a), (d), (c), (b), (e) - Assertions (A) : At times, a business may face the situation where it has to shut down its operations.
Reason (R) : If the revenue is less than its variable cost, the operation should be closed down.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2. (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
3. (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect - A statement of change in financial position typically would NOT disclose the effect of
1. Share capital issued to acquire productive facilities.
2. Dividends on share declared
3. Cash dividend declared but not yet paid
4. Purchase and retirement of treasury stock - Match List I with List II
List I
(a) Ind AS -16
(b) Ind AS -38
(c) Ind AS -17
(d) Ind AS -12
List II
(i) Income tax
(ii) Leasing
(iii) Intangible assets
(iv) Property, plant and equipment
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a)-(iv), (b)- (iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)- (iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)- (ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)- (ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) - Which of the following are the rights of a Statutory Auditor ?
(a) To receive remuneration
(b) To attend the Board of Doctors’ Meeting
(c) To attend the General meeting
(d) To visit the branch office
Choose the correct answer from the following :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Unit 3 : Business Economics – 3 Questions
- Find the marginal revenue of a firm that sells a product at a price of Rs. 10 and price elasticity of demand for the products is (-) 2.
(a) Rs 5
(b) Rs 10
(c) Rs 30
(d) Rs 15 - In which of the following commodities, when a consumer spends so much that negative income effect overwhelms the positive substitution effect so as the underlying demand curve is positively sloped ?
1. Inferior goods
2. Superior goods
3. Giffen goods
4. Normal goods - Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Theories of Profit)
(a) Risk theory of profit
(b) Innovation theory of profit
(c) Rent theory of profit
(d) Dynamic theory of profit
List – II (Economists)
(i) Schumpeter
(ii) Walker
(iii) Hawley
(iv) Clark
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) - Assertions (A) : U-shaped long-run average cost curve is based on the assumption that economies of scale prevails at small levels of production and diseconomies of scale prevails at larger level of production.
Reason (R) : Decreasing returns to scale arises primarily because as the scale of operation increases, it becomes even more difficult to manage the firm effectively.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the followings codes is correct?
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
3. (A) is correct and (R) is not incorrect
4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect - In which of the following pricing policies, a firm charges higher initial price for the product and reduces it over time as the demand at higher price is satisfied ?
1. Peak load pricing
2. Incremental pricing
3. Skimming
4. Penetration pricing - Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Objectives of business firms)
(a) Maximization of firms’ growth rate
(b) Managerial utility function
(c) Satisfying behaviour
(d) Sales maximization
List – II (Hypothesis)
(i) Baurnol’s hypothesis
(ii) Marris hypothesis
(iii) Williamson hypothesis
(iv) Cyber-March hypothesis
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv) - Under which of the following situations, economies of scale exists to the potential and persists ?
1. When firm is too small and too specialized
2. When firms’ decision to hire inputs do not result in an increase in the input costs
3. When firm is too large and over diversified
4. When long-run cost of producing a unit falls as the output increases - The essence of the law of diminishing returns is
1. Inelastic production
2. Negative marginal production
3. Declining total production
4. Declining average production - Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of price discrimination?
1. Firm must have monopoly power
2. Product have multiple close substitutes and different uses
3. Markets are separated and segmented
4. Price elasticity of product must differ in different markets - Excess capacity is NOT noticed is which of the following market conditions ?
1. Monopoly
2. Monopolistic competition
3. Oligopoly
4. Perfect competition
Unit 4 : Business Finance – 10 Questions
- A ‘sale and lease back’ arrangement is more suitable for a lessee having
1. Liquidity crisis
2. Surplus fund
3. High profit
4. No-profit no-loss - Capital structure and leverage decisions come in the ambit of
1. Investment decisions
2. Distribution decisions
3. Financing decisions
4. Dividend decisions - A company issues 10% irredeemable preference shares. The face value per share is Rs. 100, but the issue price is Rs. 95. What is the cost of preference share ?
1. 10.63%
2. 10.73%
3. 10.83%
4. 10.53% - The current market price of a company’s share is Rs. 90 and the expected dividend per share next year is Rs.4.5. If the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 8%, the shareholder’s required rate of return will be
1. 8%
2. 5%
3. 20%
4. 13% - Assertion (A) : According to Net Income (NI) approach, capital structure decision is relevant in the valuation of firm.
Reason (R) : A firm can change its total value and its overall cost of capital by change in the degree of leverage in its capital structure.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct - Under which of the following situations, the decision outcome on evaluation of investment opportunities vary under NPV and IRR methods per se ?
(a) Time disparity
(b) Cost disparity
(c) Life disparity
(d) Volume disparity
Choose the correct combination of situations :
1. (a) and (d) only
2. (b) and (d) only
3. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) only - A firm consumes 90000 units of a certain item of raw material in its production process annually. It costs Rs 3 per unit, the cost per purchase order is Rs 300 and the inventory carrying cost is 20% per year. What is the EOQ?
1. 9470 units
2. 9487 units
3. 9480 units
4. 9840 units - Miller-Orr Model is used in the management of
1. Inventory
2. Leverage
3. Receivables
4. Cash - Match List – I with List – II
List – I
(a) Net Income approach
(b) Gordan Model
(c) Internal rate of return
(d) Reorder level
List – II
(i) Inventory management
(ii) Capital budgeting
(iii) Capital structure theory
(iv) Dividend theory
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) - Which one of the following analyses is suitable for risk-return analysis in financial decisions ?
1. CAPM analysis
2. SWOT analysis
3. Capital gearing
4. EVA analysis - Currency swap is a method of
1. Hedging against foreign exchange risk
2. Speculating in foreign exchange
3. Leverage instrument used by cooperative banks
4. Mode of payment in international trade
Unit 5 : Business Statistics and Research Methods – 10 Questions
- If two regression coefficients are -0.8, and -0.2, then the value of coefficient of correlation is
1. -0.16
2. -0.50
3. + 0.40
4. – 0.40 - Statement (I) : The arithmetic mean is an all purpose average.
Statement (II) : Median and mode are called positional averages.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct ?
1. Both the Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Both the Statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect
3. Statements (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect
4. Statements (ii) is correct but (i) is incorrect - Which of the following are NOT sources of secondary data ?
(a) Interview
(b) Questionnaire
(c) Observation
(d) Unpublished thesis
(e) Annual report
Choose the correct option from the following :
1. (a), (d) and (e)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (c), (d) and (e)
4. (a), (b) and (c) - Which of the following are considered non-parametric tests ?
(a) Mann-Whitney U test
(b) Kruskal-Wallis test
(c) F-test
(d) T-test
(e) Chi-square test
Choose the correct option from the following
1. (a), (b) and (e)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) - Study the following information
Co-variance between X and Y series = – 17.8
Standard deviation of X series = 6.6
Standard deviation of Y series = 4.2
No of pairs of observation = 20
The coefficient of correlation is
1. – 0.642
2. 0.642
3. 0.253
4. -0.253 - What is the probability that sum of outcomes on pair of dice is equal to 8 ?
1. 6/36
2. 5/36
3. 4/36
4. 3/36 - The arithmetic mean of 10 items is 50. If each item is increased by 5, then new arithmetic mean would be
1. 50
2. 55
3. 60
4. 45 - Statement (I) : t-test and F-test are based on the identical assumptions.
Statement (II) : t-test is used for comparison between two groups whereas F-test is used for comparison between more than two groups.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
1. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct
2. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect
3. Statements (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect
4. Statements (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect - Match List I with List II
List I
(a) j = (b)(c)
List II
(i) Kelly’s coefficient of skewness
(ii) Bowley’s measure of skewness
(iii) Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of skewness
Choose the correct options from the those given below:
1. (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i)
2.(a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii)
3. (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii) - For a very large population the ratio between SEx and σ is 8:40. The sample size n will be:
1. 5
2. 25
3. 32
4. 48
Unit 6 : Business Management and Human Resource Management – 9 Questions
- Organization structure that shows a unique combination of strategy, structure and management process is known as
(a) Free-form organization
(b) Virtual organization
(c) Network organization
(d) Horizontal organization - The attitude based on beliefs, opinion, knowledge or information about the particular event which the employees possesses is
1. Behavioural attitude
2. Posititve attitude
3. Cognitive attitude
4. Affective attitude - Statement (I) : Though closely related, job evaluation and performance appraisal are not the same.
Statement (II) : The purpose of job evaluation is to fix the remuneration and other relevant benefits.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct ?
1. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct
2. Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect
3. Statements (I) is correct, while Statement (II) is incorrect
4. Statement (I) is incorrect, while Statement (II) is correct - Promoting team spirit, harmony and unity within the organization is the principle of
1. Order
2. Scalar chain
3. Spirit de corps
4. Equity - Following are the vents of an organizations culture :
(a) Customer orientation and employee policies
(b) Quality orientation, directing and motivating styles.
(c) Decision-making, products and services and responsibilities to society
(d) Reaction to competitors and gratitude towards nation
(e) Role ambiguities, trade union and policies.
Select the correct sequence for the above events :
1. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (c), (d) and (e)
3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) - The social environment of the job affects people and is also affected by them and not by management alone, is the main proposition of
1. Contingency theory of organization
2. System theory of organization
3. Classical theory of organization
4. Neo-classical theory of organization - Assertions (A) : Brainstorming technique demands generation of a number of alternatives to a problem.
Reason (R) : Participants generate as many alternatives as possible without evaluating them in brainstorming sessions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
1. Statement (A) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
3. Statement (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect - ‘Motivation-force or level of efforts is not equal to satisfaction and performance’ is propounded by
1. Porter-Lawler model
2. Vroom’s expectancy theory
3. X and Y theory
4. Adam’s equity theory - List out from the given statements the important ethical principles that a business should follow :
(a) To take the necessary action for the development of the concerned industry or business
(b) pay taxes and discharge other obligations promptly
(c) To ensure the best utilisation of the human resources,
(d) Refrain from secret kickbacks or pay-offs to customers, suppliers, administrators, etc.
(e) Ensure payment of fair wages and fair treatment of employees.Select the correct sequence of the above steps :
1. (c), (d) and (e)
2. (b), (d) and (e)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (a), (c) and (e)
Unit 7 : Banking and Financial Institutions – 13 Questions
- Match List – I and List – II
List – I
(a) Inter-bank call market
(b) Commercial bills
(c) Commercial papers
(d) Treasury bills
List – II
(i) Money Market
(ii) Promissory note
(iii) Short-term maturity
(iv) Government papers
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)- (ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)- (i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)- (iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)- (iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) - Which among the following is NOT true about BASEL ?
1. Initially it was named as Committee of Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices (CBRS)
2. BASEL was established by the Central Bank Governors of fifteen countries.
3. It was established by the end of 1974
4. Disturbances in international currency and banking markets were responsible for its establishment - Which one of the following is used for international money transfer ?
1. RTGS
2. NEFT
3. SWIFT
4. DD - Which among the following is NOT a correct statement ?
1. Hedge funds are not mutual funds.
2. Hedge funds can be sold to public.
3. Investors in mutual funds must pay various fees and expenses.
4. Mutual funds provide economies of scale to investment decisions. - Assertion (A) : Reserve Bank of India is an important regulatory and administrative authority to execute FEMA provisions.
Reason (R) : Being monetary authority and custodian of foreign exchange, Reserve bank of India enjoys requisite expertise of FEMA administration.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct - New reform in Indian banking system include
(a) Digitisation of bank operations
(b) Banking consolidation
(c) Borrowing from Government
(d) Agency work
Choose the correct option from the following :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (b), (d) and (c)
4. (a), (c) and (d) - Which of the following are included in digital payment system ?
(a) RTGS
(b) Demand draft
(c) NEFT
(d) Cheque
Choose the correct option from the following :
1. (a), (c) and (d)
2. (b) and (d) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) - SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of IDBI to
1. takeover the functions of small business financing of IDBI
2. takeover the venture capital operation of IDBI
3. reconstruct and rehabilitate the sick and closed industrial units financed by IDBI
4. facilitate, finance and promote India’s foreign trade - Chalapathi Rao Committee was constituted for restructuring of
1. State Financial Corporation in India
2. Commercial Banks in India
3. Co-operative Banks in India
4. Regional Rural Banks in India - Credit worthiness score in India ranges between
1. 300 to 600
2. 300 to 900
3. 500 to 1000
4. 900 to 1600 - Which one is NOT true regarding the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS) ?
1. It absorbs surplus liquidity of enduring nature arising out of large capital flows
2. It absorbs surplus liquidity through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills
3. Mobilised surplus liquidity is held in the MSS account with the Reserve Bank of India
4. MSS account liquidity can be used for normal government expenditure of capital nature - Which of the following is the predecessor of the IRDA Act, 1999 ?
(a) The Insurance Act, 1938
(b) The Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956
(c) The marine Insurance Act, 1963
(d) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 - Which of the following committees is related to the investor protection ?
1. Bhagwati Commettee
2. N.K.Mitra Committee
3. J.R.Verma Committee
4. L.C.Gupta Committee
Unit 8 : Marketing Management – 10 Questions
- Building long-term mutually satisfying relations with key customers, suppliers, distributors in order to earn and retain their long-term preference and business is known as
1. relationship marketing
2. social marketing
3. niche marketing
4. service marketing - Shopping goods have which of the following features ?
(a) These products are generally durable in nature
(b) Consumers generally compare the goods of various sellers and then buy such goods
(c) Per unit price of these goods is generally high
(d) These goods are regularly and continuously in demand
(e) These goods are sold as a result of aggressive promotional efforts
Choose the right answer from the options given below :
1. (c), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (e) - Which of the following is NOT a main stage in a customer relationship life cycle ?
1. Customer acquisition
2. Customer development
3. Customer satisfaction
4. Customer annoyance - Peter F. Drucker noted the relationship between selling and marketing in which of the following terms ?
1. marketing is a subsidiary component of selling
2. The aim of marketing is to make selling superfluous
3. The aim of selling is to make marketing superfluous
4. selling and marketing are essentially the same thing - Consumer behaviour does NOT consist which of the following activities ?
1. Obtaining
2. Consuming
3. Disposition
4. Producing - The retail supply chain does NOT include
1. Manufactures.
2. Retailers
3. Wholesalers
4. Regulators When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or more resellers, it is known as
1. direct marketing
2. indirect marketing
3. integrated marketing
4. multi-level marketing- Which of the following reflects the sum of perceived tangible and intangible benefits and costs to a customer ?
1. Customer satisfaction
2. Customer delight
3. Customer value
4. Customer expectation - Which of the following characteristics are related to relationship marketing?
(a) Product feature orientation
(b) Product benefit orientation
(c) Frequent consumer contact
(d) High concern for quality
Choose the correct option from the following :
1. (b), (c) and (d)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b) and (d) - The channel alternative is NOT to be assessed on the basis of
1. Economic criteria
2. Control criteria
3. Adaptive criteria
4. Accumulation criteria
Unit 9 : Legal Aspects of Business – 8 Questions
- Arrange the following in order of their manifestations
a. Offer
b. Acceptance
c. Breach of contract
d. Contract
Choose the correct option from the following :
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (a), (b), (d) and (c)
3. (b), (c), (a) and (d)
4. (a), (d), (c) and (b) - Statement (I) : Agreement without consideration is always valid.
Statement (II) : All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts.In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct?
1. Statement (I) and (II) both are correct
2. Both Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect
3. Statement (I) is incorrect and Statement (II) is correct
4. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect - ‘Doctrine of Caveat Emptor’ means
1. buyer should make payment well in time
2. buyer should be beware of all aspects of buying
3. buyer will be responsible for the whole payment
4. buyer will not be responsible at any cost - Which of the following does NOT fall in the ambit of the objectives of Competition Act, 2002 ?
1. Encourage Competition
2. Prevent abuse of dominant position
3. Prevent monopolistic rights arising out of intellectual property
4. Regulate mergers and acquisitions - Which of the following does NOT come under the definition of ‘information’ as per the Right to Information Act (RTI Act), 2005 ?
1. Logbooks
2. Data material held in electronic from
3. File noting
4. Circular - Match List – I with List – II
List – I
(a) Cyber Crime
(b) Doctrine of Caveat Emptor
(c) Dishonour of Bill
(d) Patent of Copyrights
List – II
(i) Intellectual Property Right Act.
(ii) Negotiable Instrument Act
(iii) Sale of Goods Act
(iv) The Information Technology Act
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) - Which among the following is NOT included in negotiable instrument ?
1. Cheque
2. Demand Draft
3. Promissiory Note
4. Mutual Fund - Which of the following commodities is kept outside the purview of GST?
1. Tobacco products
2. Petroleum products
3. Edible oils
4. Insurance products
Unit 10: Income-tax and Corporate Tax Planning : 7 Questions
- X is an individual of 55 years of age having gross total income Rs. 3,50,000. What is the tax liability for assessment year 2018-19 ?
1. Rs. 5,000
2. Rs . 2,500
3. Rs. 2,580
4. Rs. 3,000 - Match List – I with List – II
List – I
(a) Sec 6 (i)
(b) Sec 10 AA
(c) Sec 10 (i)
(d) Sec 10 (5)
List – II
(i) Agriculture Income
(ii) Leave Travel Concession
(iii) Resident
(iv) Leave Salary
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) - Match List – I with List – II
List – I
(a) 80 TTA
(b) 80 CCD
(c) 80 E
(d) 80 EE
List – II
(i) Deduction in respect of payment of interest on loan taken for higher education
(ii) Deduction in respect of interest on loan taken for residential house property
(iii) Deduction in respect of interest on deposits in savings account
(iv) Deduction in respect of contribution to national pension system
Choose the correct option from those given below :
1. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv) - Following are the information for a house property
Municipal value – Rs 4,50,000
Fair rental value – Rs 5,00,000
Standard rent Rs – 4,80,000
Actual rent – Rs 4,20,000
What is the gross annual value of the house property ?
1. Rs. 4,80,000
2. Rs. 5,00,000
3. Rs. 4,20,000
4. Rs.4,50,000 - Amount unutilised in capital gain account scheme for which exemption claimed u/s 54 shall be treated as long-term capital gain, if
1. 2 years have expired from the date of transfer
2. 2 years have expired from the date of deposit
3. 3 years have expired from the date of transfer
4. 3 years have expired from the date of deposit - Deduction u/s 37 (1) is allowed under tax laws for those expenditure which are
1. Revenue
2. Capital
3. Both revenue and capital
4. Deferred revenue expenses - In tax laws, donation to approved and notified association for scientific research is allowed as
1. 125% of the donation
2. 100% of the donation
3. 175% of the donation
4. 150% of the donation - Statement (1) : If the tax liability has been reduced within the legal framework, it is tax planning
Statement (II): If tax liability has been reduced to get benefit of deduction available under the income tax, it is called tax evasion.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following codes is correct ?
(a) Both the Statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
(b) Statements (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect
(c) Both Statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
(d) Statements (ii) is correct but (i) is incorrect. - Return of income is submitted under which section of income tax act ?
1. Section 138 (1)
2. Section 142 (1)
3. Section 139 (1)
4. Section 129 (1) - SUGAM is also know as
1. ITR – 1
2. ITR – 2
3. ITR – 3
4. ITR – 4